UPSC Civil Services Exam

The Civil Services refer to the permanent executive branch of the Republic of India. The Civil Service system is the backbone of the administrative machinery of our country.

In the parliamentary democracy of India, the ultimate responsibility for running the administration rests with the elected representatives of the people who are the ministers. But a handful of ministers cannot be expected to deal with multitude problems of modern administration. Thus, the ministers lay down the policies and it is the Civil Servants to implement such policies.

The topmost executive decisions are being implemented by the Civil Servants. The members of Civil Service serve at the pleasure of the President of India. Civil servants are the employees of the Government of India and that of respective states.

The Civil Services system in India is purely merit and rank-based and does not follow the tenets of the position-based Civil Services.

Civil Servant Role in Society

Role of civil Services in a Democracy

  • India being a democratic country where power of the State is rests with the people of India. India’s indirect nature of democracy empowers elected representatives to exercise state power.

  • Since Civil Servants, by virtue of their supreme knowledge, experience and deep insights in public affairs supports the Political representatives in shaping and implementing the public policies for the welfare of society and development of the nation.

  • Civil Servants are the permanent executive work to support the temporary political policymakers and political executives.

  • They form the stable structure and support of the Indian Administration System.

  • The Indian Administrative Service (IAS) was formed in the year of 1946. It is one of the three All India Services (the other two are Indian Forest Services and Indian Police Services).

  • The cadre controlling authority for IAS is the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pension, and Department of Personnel & Training. Cadre size: 5159 posts (direct recruitment – 66.67%, promotion 33.33%).

  • The selected candidates' training ground is at Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration.

Functions of IAS Officers: 

  • The IAS handles affairs of government, which involves the framing and implementation of policy in consultation with the concerned Minister.

  • Implementation of policies calls for supervision. Implementation entails disbursement of funds, which calls for personal supervision.

  • The functions and responsibilities of an IAS officer change at different points of his/her career.

  • At the beginning of their career, IAS officers join the state administration at the sub-divisional level, as a sub-divisional magistrate, and look after law and order, general administration and development work in the area under their charge.

  • The post of the District Officer variously known as District Magistrate, district Collector or Deputy Commissioner is the most prestigious an identifiable post held by the members of the service.

  • At the district level, these officers are mainly concerned with district affairs, including the implementation of developmental programs.

  • During the normal course of a career, the officers also serve in the State Secretariat or as Heads of Departments or in Public Sector Undertakings.

  • Officers may move from positions at the State, under deputation, to the Centre and back again.

  • At the top of the hierarchy of IAS officers at the Centre is the Cabinet Secretary followed by Secretary/Additional Secretary, Joint Secretary, Director, Deputy Secretary and Under Secretary.

  • The main work of IAS officers at the Centre involves formulation and implementation of policies pertaining to a particular area e.g., finance, commerce, etc.

  • In the process of policy formulation and decision making, officers at various levels like a joint secretary, deputy secretary make their contributions and the final shape to the policy is given or a final decision is taken with the concurrence of the minister concerned or the cabinet depending upon the gravity the issue.

  • The Indian Administrative Service (IAS) is the highest administrative civil service of the Government of India. IAS officer holds vital and strategic positions in the Union Government, States, and public-sector undertakings. 

  • Indian Administrative Services along with the Indian Police Service and Indian Forest Services is one of the All-India Services, its cadre can be employed by both the Union Government and the individual States.

  • An IAS officer is given administrative command of entire district as District collector upon confirming to service after the probation period as Sub-Divisional Magistrate also known as SDO or Sub-Collector.

  • As an IAS Officer reaches the upper levels of Super Time Scale to Apex Scale, he/she can head whole departments and then entire Ministries of Government of India and States.

  • IAS Officers also represent the Government of India at the international level in bilateral and multilateral conferences and discussions. On delegations, IAS officers also work at Intergovernmental organizations like World Bank and United Nations or its Agencies.

Career Prospects for Various Services

Career Prospects for various Services

  • The motivation to succeed must be very strong indeed; as it is not an easy task by any measure to scale the stages of getting selected for the Civil Services Exam. Despite the process being so stringent, people try hard and try many times to enter this coveted career. 

  • Each year, lakhs of aspirants apply for the exam, but only the best minds make it to the final merit list.

IAS Career Prospects Allocation and Placement

The selected candidates have to undergo training at LBSNAA, Mussoorie. 

  • IAS officers can hold various administrative posts like District Collector, Heads of Departments, and Head of Public Enterprises at the state level. They can also be posted on deputation to the Central Government to various posts.

  • An officer belonging to the Indian Administrative Service will be liable to serve anywhere in India or abroad either under the Central Government or under a State Government.

  • An IAS officers handle affairs of the government at the State and Central level.

  • IAS officers can also be appointed in autonomous organizations/subordinate organizations/PSUs/UN Organizations/international organizations like World Bank, Asian Development Bank in various capacities.

  • They also serve as Personal Secretaries to Ministers in Central Government.

  • There is provision for deputation of IAS officers to private organizations also for a fixed tenure.

 Position in the Central Government of India

  • Under Secretary

  • Deputy Secretary

  • Director

  • Joint Secretary

  • Additional Secretary

  • Secretary and

  • CABINET Secretary

Equivalent Position in the State Government

  • Deputy Secretary, Additional District Magistrate

  • Joint Secretary, District Magistrate,  Deputy Commissioner

  • Special Secretary, Head of Departments Secretary

  • Principal Secretary, Financial Commissioner Chief Secretary

  • Constitutional Authority – Ranked 11th In the table of precedence.

Main responsibilities of an IAS officer:

  • The typical functions performed by an IAS officer are:

  • To collect revenue and function as Courts in matters of revenue, to maintain law and order, to implement Union and State Government policies at the grass-root level when posted at field positions i.e. as Sub-Divisional Magistrate, Additional District Magistrate, District Magistrate and Divisional Commissioner. And to act as the agent of the government on the field, i.e. to act as the intermediate between public and the government.

  • To handle the administration and daily proceedings of the government, including the formulation and implementation of policy in consultation with the Minister-in-charge of the concerned Ministry or Department.

  • To contribute to policy formulation, and to take a final decision in certain matters, with the agreement of the Minister concerned or the Council of Ministers (depending upon the weight of the matter), when posted at higher level in Union Government as Joint Secretary, Additional Secretary, Special Secretary/Secretary equivalent, Secretary and Cabinet Secretary, and in State Governments as Principal Secretary, Additional Chief Secretary/Special Chief Secretary and Chief Secretary.

Crucial Things You Need to Keep in Mind

  • The work of IAS officers mainly involves the formulation of well-structured policies, elaborately organising plans, proper management of resources as per requirements of various offices, and supervising the implementation of the revised plans and policies. So, being able to take fast, precise and unbiased decisions is an everyday job schedule for an IAS officer. Every decision taken by him has a direct impact on the political and socio-economic structure of our nation and affects the lifestyle of the average Indian population.

  • Although there is a considerable amount of work pressure, it is still less than a lot of the corporate sector jobs. Although difficult and challenging, the job satisfaction of an Indian Administrative Officer is much higher as their decisions have an impact on the country. The reputation and prestige of this glorious career option can reach the apogee and act as a major boost to one’s self-esteem.

  • The IAS officers, owing to their general responsibilities, must possess excellent communication skills and be able to interact with all kinds of people. They should be impartial when taking decisions, irrespective of the caste, creed, gender and the religion of the people they are dealing with.

Eligibility : Who can apply?

Eligibility: Who can apply?

(A) Nationality

(1) For the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service, a candidate must be a citizen of India.

(2) For other services, a candidate must be either:—

(a) A citizen of India, or

(b) A subject of Nepal, or

(c) A subject of Bhutan, or

(d) A Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, or

(e) A person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.

  • Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

  • Provided further that candidates belonging to categories (b), (c) and (d) above will not be eligible for appointment to the Indian Foreign Service.


(B) Educational Qualifications

(1) Graduation Degree From:

(a) The Universities incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India.

(b) Or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament.

(c) Or declared to be deemed as a University under Section-3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956.

(d) Or possess an equivalent qualification.

Note: Final year students can also apply and UPSC has not mentioned any minimum marks/percentage obtained in the graduation.


(C) Age Limit:

  • The minimum age to appear for IAS Exam is 21 years. This means that the candidate must have at least 21 years of age on 1st August of that given year when the exam is held. For example, if the candidate is appearing for 2019 prelims, he/she should be above 21 years of age by Aug 1, 2019.

  • Upper age limit is also calculated on the date Aug 1. This means if the candidate is appearing for 2019 prelims, he/she should be below the mentioned maximum limit by Aug 1, 2019. Upper age limit is fixed different for different categories, which is as given below.

1. Upper age limit for General category: 32 years.

2. Upper age limit for OBC: 35 years.

3. Upper age limit for SC/ST: 37 Years.

4. Upper age limit for Defence Services personnel disabled in operations during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof: 35 years.

5. Upper age limit for Ex-servicemen including Commissioned Officers and ECOs/SSCOs who have rendered at least five years Military Service: 37 years.

6. Upper age limit for blind, deaf-mute and orthopedically handicapped persons (general category): 42 years.

  • Apart from the mentioned limits, OBC/ SC/ ST candidates will get the benefit of cumulative age relaxation. This means age relaxations gets added in special cases, say, for example, if the person is OBC + Ex-service men, he will get an extension of 5 + 7 = 12 years, i.e. his upper age limit now stands at 42 years.


(D) No. of attempts allowed:


Age Limit

No. of Attempts Allowed


32 Years

06 Attempts

Other Backwards Castes (OBC)

32 Year with relaxation of 03 Years = 35 Years

09 Attempts

Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)

32 Years

06 Attempts

Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe (SC/ST)

32 Year with relaxation of 03 Years = 35 Years

Till the Age Limit

Physically disabled candidates (Blind, Deaf-Mute, Orthopaedic)

32 Year with relaxation of 10 Years = 42 Years

For General and OBC Candidates = 09 attempts, For SC/ST Candidates = Unlimited till age limit

Jammu & Kashmir Domicile

General = 37 Years, OBC = 40 Years, SC/ST = 42 Years, PH = 50 Years

Up to the Upper Age Limit

Disabled servicemen disabled from duty

General = 37 Years, OBC = 38 Years, SC/ST = 40 Years

Up to the Upper Age Limit


How are attempts for Civil Service Exam calculated?

  • If a candidate appears for any of the papers of the Civil Services Preliminary Exam, his/her attempt is counted. 

  • If a candidate applied for UPSC Civil service exam but didn’t go to take the Preliminary Exam, his/her attempt will NOT BE COUNTED.


(E) Restriction on candidates already selected for IAS/IFS service.

  • A candidate who is appointed to the Indian Administrative Service or the Indian Foreign Service on the results of an earlier examination and continues to be a member of that service will not be eligible to compete at this examination.

  • In case such a candidate is appointed to the IAS/IFS after the Preliminary Examination of Civil Services Examination, 2018 is over and he/she continues to be a member of that service, he/she shall not be eligible to appear in the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2018 notwithstanding his/her having qualified in the Preliminary Examination, 2018.


(F) Fees:

  • Rs. 100 for Prelims Exam.

  • Rs.200 for Mains Exam.


(G) How to Apply:

  • The Application form is filled online on the UPSC website:

Scheme of the Examination

Civil Services Exam is conducted in three stages.

1st Stage: Preliminary Exam: 

  • It has two papers General Ability test (Paper I) and Civil Service Aptitude Test (CSAT) (Paper-II) 200 Marks each, both of objective type.

  • It is a qualifying round and the marks scored in this exam will not be added to the total score.

  • Candidates are selected based on the marks obtained in General studies Paper 1 Only. However, Candidate must secure a minimum of 33 % marks in CSAT paper (Paper II).

  • Candidates, approx. twelve to thirteen times the number of vacancies to be filled in the year, pass the preliminary stage and become eligible to appear in the mains exam. 

  • It is conducted in the month of May-June.                                                       

Prelims Exams Details:

Exam Mode


Number of Papers (2)

 General Ability Test (GAT) and the Civil Service Aptitude Test (CSAT)

Number of Questions and Time

Paper 1- 100; Paper 2- 80 ; Time 2 hrs for each paper

Marks Per Question

Paper I - 2 marks/Question, Paper II- 2.5 marks per Question. Total marks: 200 for each paper. Negative Marking for the Wrong Answer is 1/3rd, in both the papers

Question Paper Type

Multiple Choice Questions


Hindi and English

Nature of Exam

Qualifying (Merit List is based only on the Marks obtained in the GAT paper provided CSAT is to be qualified by a minimum of 33 % marks.


2nd Stage: Mains Exam:

  • Civil Services Mains is also an offline exam. Each paper will carry 250 marks

  • Each paper is of 3 hours. 30 minutes are given extra to blind students.

  • The exam will have a total of 9 papers. A candidate will be tested on the basis of their knowledge and understanding of the subject.

  • Civil Services Mains is further divided into two types – Two Qualifying Papers and Seven Papers based on which final Merit list is prepared. It is compulsory to appear in both types of papers.

Qualifying Papers- (2)

1.       Paper A: (One of the Indian Language to be selected from the ones included in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution – 250 Marks).

2.       Paper B: English – 250 Marks 

Seven Mains Papers based on which merit is prepared are: 


Title of the Paper the Paper

Marks Allotted 

Paper 1

Essay writing

250 Marks

Paper 2

General Studies–I (Indian Heritage and Culture, History and Geography of the World and Society)

250 Marks

Paper 3

General Studies –II (Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International relations)

250 Marks

Paper 4

General Studies –III  (Technology, Economic Development, Bio?diversity, Environment, Security and Disaster Management)

250 Marks

Paper 5

General Studies –IV (Ethics, Integrity, and Aptitude)

250 Marks

Paper 6

Optional Subject – Paper 1

250 Marks

Paper 7

Optional Subject – Paper 2

250 Marks


  Sub Total in the written Test  

1750 Marks




List of Optional Subjects






Political Science & International Relations

Commerce & Accountancy




Mechanical Engineering


Public Administration


Electrical Engineering



Medical Science

Animal Husbandry& Veterinary Science


Civil Engineering











3rd Stage: Personality Test:  

  • All candidates qualifying the Mains examination will have to appear in the Personality Test.

  • This would include the Psychometric Test, Assessment Test as well as the Personal Interview.

  • The objective of the interview is to assess the personal suitability of the candidate for a career in public service by a Board of competent and unbiased observers. He/She will be asked questions on matters of general interest. 

  • The test is intended to judge the mental caliber of a candidate. 

  • In broad terms, this is really an assessment of not only his intellectual qualities but also social traits and his/her interest in current affairs. 

  • Some of the qualities to be judged are mental alertness, critical powers of assimilation, clear and logical exposition, balance of judgement, variety and depth of interest, ability for social cohesion and leadership, intellectual and moral integrity.

  • This test will be conducted in the language of individual choice. 

  • The interview will be graded for 275 marks. The Maximum mark for Civil services exam is 2025 marks 

  • Candidates will be ranked on the basis of the total marks and appointed to the coveted Indian Civil Services.

Syllabus for Prelims Exam

Prelims Syllabus

  •  The preliminary examination of UPSC is for screening purpose only. The marks obtained in the UPSC prelims examination amount to qualification to take the UPSC Main examination and will not be counted for determining a candidate's final order of merit. Prelims Exams consisting of two papers.

Syllabus of Paper I (200 marks) Duration: 2 hours

  • Current events of national and international importance.

  • History of India and Indian National Movement.

  • Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World.

  • Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.

  • Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc.

  • General issues on Environmental ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change - that do not require subject specialization.

  • General Science.

Syllabus for Paper II-(200 marks) Duration: 2 hours: Popularly Known as CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test)

  • Comprehension

  • Interpersonal skills including communication skills;

  • Logical reasoning and analytical ability

  • Decision-making and problem solving

  • General mental ability

  • Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency, etc. - Class X level)

Note 1: The CSAT aptitude test or Paper-II of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination will be a qualifying paper only with a minimum of 33% to be secured to sit for the Civil Services (Mains) exam.

Note 2: The questions in both Paper-I (current affairs) and Paper-II (aptitude test) will be of multiple-choice, objective type for 200 marks each and the time allotted for each paper is two hours

Note 3: It is mandatory for the candidate to appear in both the papers of Civil Services (Prelim) examination for the purpose of evaluation. Therefore a candidate will be disqualified in case he or she does not appear in both the papers of the (Prelims) exam.

Syllabus for Mains Exam

The Main examination of UPSC is designed to test a candidate's academic expertise and the ability to present his/her knowledge in a consistent manner. The UPSC Mains exam intends to assess the overall intellectual traits and understanding of the concept by the candidates.

The Civil Services Main examination is designed to test the academic talent of the aspirant, also his/her ability to present his/ her knowledge in a clear and coherent manner.

The written examination will consist of the following papers:

Paper I - Modern Indian language - 300 Marks

Qualifying nature: Marks not counted But Passing this exam is mandatory by a minimum of 25% of the total marks.

The aim of the paper is to test the candidates' ability to read and understand serious discursive prose and to express his ideas clearly and correctly, in English and Indian Language concerned.

The pattern of questions would be broadly as follows:-

  • Comprehension of given passages
  • Precis Writing
  • Usage and Vocabulary
  • Short Essay
  • Translation from English to the Indian language and vice-versa

Note 1: The Papers on Indian Languages and English will be of Matriculation or equivalent standard and will be of qualifying nature only. The marks obtained in these papers will not be counted for ranking.

Note 2: The candidates will have to answer the English and Indian Languages papers in English and the respective Indian language (except where translation is involved).

Paper II - English - 300 marks

Qualifying nature: Marks not counted But Passing this exam is mandatory by a minimum of 25% of the total marks.

The aim of the paper is to test the candidates' ability to read and understand serious discursive prose, and to express his ideas clearly and correctly, in English and Indian Language concerned.

The pattern of questions would be broadly as follows:-

  • Comprehension of given passages 
  • Precis Writing
  • Usage and Vocabulary
  • Short Essay

Paper III - Essay - 250 Marks

  • To be written in the medium or language of the candidate's choice
  • Candidates will be required to write an essay on a specific topic
  • The choice of subjects will be given
  • They will be expected to keep closely to the subject of the essay to arrange their ideas in orderly fashion, and to write concisely
  • Credit will be given for effective and exact expression

Paper IV - General Studies - I (250 Marks)

(Indian Heritage and Culture, History and Geography of the World and Society)

Indian Heritage and Culture

  • Indian culture will cover the salient aspects of Art Forms, Literature and Architecture from ancient to modern times.
  • Modern Indian history from about the middle of the eighteenth century until the present- significant events, personalities, issues.
  • The Freedom Struggle - its various stages and important contributors /contributions from different parts of the country.
  • Post-independence consolidation and reorganization within the country.

History of the world

  • History of the world will include events from 18th century such as industrial revolution, world wars, redrawal of national boundaries, colonization, decolonization, political philosophies like communism, capitalism, socialism etc.- their forms and effect on the society.


  • Salient features of Indian Society, Diversity of India
  • Role of women and women's organization, population and associated issues, poverty and developmental issues, urbanization, their problems and their remedies.
  • Effects of globalization on Indian society
  • Social empowerment, communalism, regionalism & secularism.

Geography of the World

  • Salient features of world's physical geography.
  • Distribution of key natural resources across the world (including South Asia and the Indian sub-continent); factors responsible for the location of primary, secondary, and tertiary sector industries in various parts of the world (including India).
  • Important Geophysical phenomena such as earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic activity, cyclone etc., geographical features and their location- changes in critical geographical features (including water-bodies and ice-caps) and in flora and fauna and the effects of such changes.

Paper V - General Studies II - 250 Marks

(Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International relations)

Constitution, Polity

  • Indian Constitution- historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure.
  • Functions and responsibilities of the Union and the States, issues and challenges pertaining to the federal structure, devolution of powers and finances up to local levels and challenges therein.
  • Separation of powers between various organs dispute redressal mechanisms and institutions.
  • Comparison of the Indian constitutional scheme with that of other countries.
  • Parliament and State Legislatures - structure, functioning, conduct of business, powers & privileges and issues arising out of these.
  • Structure, organization and functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary Ministries and Departments of the Government; pressure groups and formal/informal associations and their role in the Polity.
  • Salient features of the Representation of People's Act.
  • Appointment to various Constitutional posts, powers, functions and responsibilities of various Constitutional Bodies.
  • Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies.

Governance, Social Justice

  • Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.
  • Development processes and the development industry the role of NGOs, SHGs, various groups and associations, donors, charities, institutional and other stakeholders.
  • Welfare schemes for vulnerable sections of the population by the Centre and States and the performance of these schemes; mechanisms, laws, institutions and 
  • Bodies constituted for the protection and betterment of these vulnerable sections.
  • Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health, Education, Human Resources.
  • Issues relating to poverty and hunger.
  • Important aspects of governance, transparency and accountability, e-governance- applications, models, successes, limitations, and potential; citizens charters, transparency & accountability and institutional and other measures
  • Role of civil services in a democracy.


International relations

  • India and its neighbourhood- relations
  • Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India's interests.
  • Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India's interests, Indian diaspora.
  • Important International institutions, agencies and fora, their structure, mandate.

Paper VI - General Studies III - 250 Marks

(Technology, Economic Development, Bio-diversity, Environment, Security and Disaster Management)

Economic Development

  • Development, Bio diversity, Environment, Security and Disaster Management.
  • Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization of resources, growth, development and employment.
  • Inclusive growth and issues arising from it.
  • Government Budgeting.
  • Major crops cropping patterns in various parts of the country, different types of irrigation and irrigation systems storage, transport and marketing of agricultural produce and issues and related constraints; e-technology in the aid of farmers.
  • Issues related to direct and indirect farm subsidies and minimum support prices; Public Distribution System objectives, functioning, limitations, revamping; issues of buffer stocks and food security; Technology missions;economics of animal-rearing.
  • Food processing and related industries in India- scope and significance, location, upstream and downstream requirements, supply chain management.
  • Land reforms in India.
  • Effects of liberalization on the economy, changes in industrial policy and their effects on industrial growth.
  • Infrastructure: Energy, Ports, Roads, Airports, Railways etc.
  • Investment models.


  • Science and Technology- developments and their applications and effects in everyday life Achievements of Indians in science & technology; indigenization of technology and developing new technology
  • Awareness in the fields of IT, Space, Computers, robotics, nano-technology, bio-technology and issues relating to intellectual property rights.

Bio-diversity, Environment

  • Conservation, environmental pollution and degradation, environmental impact assessment.
  • Disaster and disaster management.


  • Linkages between development and spread of extremism.
  • Role of external state and non-state actors in creating challenges to internal security.
  • Challenges to internal security through communication networks, role of media and social networking sites in internal security challenges, basics of cyber security; money-laundering and its prevention.
  • Security challenges and their management in border areas; linkages of organized crime with terrorism.
  • Various Security forces and agencies and their mandate.

Paper VII - General Studies IV - 250 Marks

(Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude)

  • This paper will include questions to test the candidates' attitude and approach to issues relating to integrity, probity in public life and his problem solving approach to various issues and conflicts faced by him in dealing with society. Questions may utilize the case study approach to determine these aspects. The following broad areas will be covered.
  • Ethics and Human Interface: Essence, determinants and consequences of Ethics in human actions; dimensions of ethics; ethics in private and public relationships.
  • Human Values - lessons from the lives and teachings of great leaders, reformers and administrators; role of family, society and educational institutions in inculcating values.
  • Attitude: content, structure, function; its influence and relation with thought and behaviour; moral and political attitudes; social influence and persuasion.
  • Aptitude and foundational values for Civil Service , integrity, impartiality and non-partisanship, objectivity, dedication to public service, empathy, tolerance and compassion towards the weaker-sections.
  • Emotional intelligence-concepts, and their utilities and application in administration and governance.
  • Contributions of moral thinkers and philosophers from India and world.
  • Public/Civil service values and Ethics in Public administration: Status and problems; ethical concerns and dilemmas in government and private institutions; laws, rules, regulations and conscience as sources of ethical guidance; accountability and ethical governance; strengthening of ethical and moral values in governance;ethical issues in international relations and funding; corporate governance.
  • Probity in Governance: Concept of public service; Philosophical basis of governance and probity; Information sharing and transparency in government, Right to Information, Codes of Ethics, Codes of Conduct, Citizen's
  • Charters, Work culture, Quality of service delivery, Utilization of public funds, challenges of corruption
  • Case Studies on the above issues.

Paper VIII - Optional Subject - Paper I - 250 Marks

  • Candidates may choose any ONE optional subject from amongst the list of subjects given below.

Paper IX - Optional Subject - Paper II -250 Marks

  • Candidates may choose any ONE optional subject from amongst the list of subjects given below.

Syllabus for Optional Subjects:
List of Optional Subjects for Civil Services Main Examination 

  • Agriculture
  • Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science
  • Anthropology
  • Botany
  • Chemistry
  • Civil Engineering
  • Commerce & Accountancy
  • Economics
  • Electrical Engineering
  • Geography
  • Geology
  • Indian History
  • Law
  • Management
  • Mechanical Engineering
  • Mathematics
  • Medical Science
  • Philosophy
  • Physics
  • Political Science & International Relations
  • Psychology
  • Public Administration
  • Sociology
  • Statistics
  • Zoology
  • Literature of any one of the language such as Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, gujarathi, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Marathi, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, English.

Syllabus for Mains - Optional Subject Exam

UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam consists of Geology

General Geology:

  • The Solar System, Meteorites, Origin and interior of the earth and age of the earth; Volcanoes- causes and products, Volcanic belts; Earthquakes-causes, effects, Seismic zones of India; Island arcs, trenches and mid-ocean ridges; Continental drifts; Seafloor spreading, Plate tectonics; Isostasy.

Geomorphology and Remote Sensing:

  • Basic concepts of geomorphology; Weathering and soil formations; Landforms, slopes and drainage; Geomorphic cycles and their interpretation; Morphology and its relation to structures and lithology; Coastal geomorphology; Applications of geomorphology in mineral prospecting, civil engineering; Hydrology and environmental studies; Geomorphology of Indian subcontinent. Aerial photographs and their interpretation-merits and limitations; The Electromagnetic spectrum; Orbiting satellites and sensor systems; Indian Remote Sensing Satellites; Satellites data products; Applications of remote sensing in geology; The Geographic Information Systems (GIS) and Global Positioning System (GPS) – its applications.

Structural Geology:

  • Principles of geologic mapping and map reading, Projection diagrams, Stress and strain ellipsoid and stress-strain relationships of elastic, plastic and viscous materials; Strain markers in deformed rocks; Behaviour of minerals and rocks under deformation conditions; Folds and faults classification and mechanics; Structural analysis of folds, foliations, lineations, joints and faults, unconformities; Time-relationship between crystallization and deformation.


  • Species- definition and nomenclature; Megafossils and Microfossils; Modes of preservation of fossils; Different kinds of microfossils; Application of microfossils in correlation, petroleum exploration, paleoclimatic and paleoceanographic studies; Evolutionary trend in Hominidae, Equidae and Proboscidae; Siwalik fauna; Gondwana flora and fauna and its importance; Index fossils and their significance.

Indian Stratigraphy:

  • Classification of stratigraphic sequences: lithostratigraphic, biostratigraphic, chronostratigraphic and magnetostratigraphic and their interrelationships; Distribution and classification of Precambrian rocks of India; Study of stratigraphic distribution and lithology of Phanerozoic rocks of India with reference to fauna, flora and economic importance; Major boundary problemsCambrian/Precambrian, Permian/Triassic, Cretaceous/Tertiary and Pliocene/Pleistocene; Study of climatic conditions, paleogeography and igneous activity in the Indian subcontinent in the geological past; Tectonic framework of India; Evolution of the Himalayas.

Hydrogeology and Engineering Geology:

  • Hydrologic cycle and genetic classification of water; Movement of subsurface water; Springs; Porosity, permeability, hydraulic conductivity, transmissivity and storage coefficient, classification of aquifers; Water-bearing characteristics of rocks; Groundwater chemistry; Salt water intrusion; Types of wells; Drainage basin morphometry; Exploration for groundwater; Ground-water recharge; Problems and management of groundwater; Rainwater harvesting; Engineering properties of rocks; Geological investigations for dams, tunnels highways, railway and bridges; Rock as construction material; Landslides-causes, prevention and rehabilitation; Earthquake-resistant structures. 



  • Classification of crystals into systems and classes of symmetry; International system of crystallographic notation; Use of projection diagrams to represent crystal symmetry; Elements of X-ray crystallography. Physical and chemical characters of rock forming silicate mineral groups; Structural classification of silicates; Common minerals of igneous and metamorphic rocks; Minerals of the carbonate, phosphate, sulphide and halide groups; Clay minerals. Optical properties of common rock forming minerals; Pleochroism, extinction angle, double refraction, birefringence, twinning and dispersion in minerals.

Igneous and Metamorphic Petrology:

  • Generation and crystallization of magmas; Crystallization of albite-anorthite, diopside-anorthite and diopside-wollastonite- silica systems; Bowen’s Reaction Principle; Magmatic differentation and assimilation; Petrogenetic significance of the textures and structures of igneous rocks; Petrography and petrogenesis of granite, syenite, diorite, basic and ultrabasic groups, charnockite, anorthosite and alkaline rocks; Carbonatites; Deccan volcanic province. Types and agents of metamorphism; Metamorphic grades and zones; Phase rule; Facies of regional and contact metamorphism; ACF and AKF diagrams; Textures and structures of metamorphic rocks; Metamorphism of arenaceous, argillaceous and basic rocks; Minerals assemblages Retrograde metamorphism; Metasomatism and granitisation, migmatites, Granulite terrains of India.

Sedimentary Petrology:

  • Sediments and Sedimentary rocks: Processes of formation; digenesis and lithification; Clastic and non-clastic rocks-their classification, petrography and depositional environment; Sedimentary facies and provenance; Sedimentary structures and their significance; Heavy minerals and their significance; Sedimentary basins of India.

Economic Geology:

  • Ore, ore minerals and gangue, tenor of ore, classification of ore deposits; Process of formation of minerals deposits; Controls of ore localization; Ore textures and structures; Metallogenic epochs and provinces; Geology of the important Indian deposits of aluminium, chromium, copper, gold, iron, lead zinc, manganese, titanium, uranium and thorium and industrial minerals; Deposits of coal and petroleum in India; National Mineral Policy; Conservation and utilization of mineral resources; Marine mineral resources and Law of Sea.

Mining Geology:

  • Methods of prospecting-geological, geophysical, geochemical and geobotanical; Techniques of sampling; Estimation of reserves or ore; Methods of exploration and mining metallic ores, industrial minerals, marine mineral resources and building stones; Mineral beneficiation and ore dressing.

Geochemistry and Environmental Geology:

  • Cosmic abundance of elements; Composition of the planets and meteorites; Structure and composition of Earth and distribution of elements; Trace elements; Elements of crystal chemistry-types of chemical bonds, coordination number; Isomorphism and polymorphism; Elementary thermodynamics. Natural hazards-floods, mass wasting, costal hazards, earthquakes and volcanic activity and mitigation; Environmental impact of urbanization, mining, industrial and radioactive waste disposal, use of fertilizers, dumping of mine waste and fly ash; Pollution of ground and surface water, marine pollution; Environment protection legislative measures in India; Sea level changes: causes and impact.    


Geography optional syllabus for UPSC Mains


  • Geomorphology: Factors controlling landform development; endogenetic and exogenetic forces; Origin and evolution of the earth’s crust; Fundamentals of geomagnetism; Physical conditions of the earth’s interior; Geosynclines; Continental drift; Isostasy; Plate tectonics; Recent views on mountain building; Vulcanicity; Earthquakes and Tsunamis; Concepts of geomorphic cycles and Landscape development ; Denudation chronology; Channel morphology; Erosion surfaces; Slope development; Applied Geomorphology : Geohydrology, economic geology and environment.

  • Climatology: Temperature and pressure belts of the world; Heat budget of the earth; Atmospheric circulation; atmospheric stability and instability. Planetary and local winds; Monsoons and jet streams; Air masses and frontogenesis, Temperate and tropical cyclones; Types and distribution of precipitation; Weather and Climate; Koppen’s, Thornthwaite’s and Trewartha’s classification of world climates; Hydrological cycle; Global climatic change and role and response of man in climatic changes, Applied climatology and Urban climate.

  • Oceanography: Bottom topography of the Atlantic, Indian and Pacific Oceans; Temperature and salinity of the oceans; Heat and salt budgets, Ocean deposits; Waves, currents and tides; Marine resources: biotic, mineral and energy resources; Coral reefs, coral bleaching; sealevel changes; law of the sea and marine pollution.

  • Biogeography: Genesis of soils; Classification and distribution of soils; Soil profile; Soil erosion, degradation and conservation; Factors influencing world distribution of plants and animals; Problems of deforestation and conservation measures; Social forestry; agro-forestry; Wildlife; Major gene pool centres.

  • Environmental Geography: Principle of ecology; Human ecological adaptations; Influence of man on ecology and environment; Global and regional ecological changes and imbalances; Ecosystem their management and conservation; Environmental degradation, management and conservation; Biodiversity and sustainable development; Environmental policy; Environmental hazards and remedial measures; Environmental education and legislation.

Human Geography:

  • Perspectives in Human Geography: Areal differentiation; regional synthesis; Dichotomy and dualism; Environmentalism; Quantitative revolution and locational analysis; radical, behavioural, human and welfare approaches; Languages, religions and secularisation; Cultural regions of the world; Human development index.

  • Economic Geography: World economic development: measurement and problems; World resources and their distribution;Energy crisis; the limits to growth;World agriculture:typology of agricultural regions;agricultural inputs and productivity;Food and nutrition problems;Food security;Famine:causes,effects and remedies;World industries:Location pattern and problems;patterns of world trade.

  • Population and Settlement Geography: Growth and distribution of world population; demographic attributes; Causes and consequences of migration; concepts of the over-under-and optimum population; Population theories, world population problems and policies, Social well-being and quality of life; Population as social capital. Types and patterns of rural settlements; Environmental issues in rural settlements; Hierarchy of urban settlements; Urban morphology: Concepts of primate city and rank-size rule; Functional classification of towns; Sphere of urban influence; Rural urban fringe; Satellite towns; Problems and remedies of urbanization; Sustainable development of cities.

  • Regional Planning: Concept of a region; Types of regions and methods of regionalisation; Growth centres and growth poles; Regional imbalances; regional development strategies; environmental issues in regional planning; Planning for sustainable development.

  • Models, Theories and Laws in Human Geography: Systems analysis in Human geography; Malthusian, Marxian and demographic transition models; Central Place theories of Christaller and Losch; Perroux and Boudeville; Von Thunen’s model of agricultural location; Weber’s model of industrial location; Ostrov’s model of stages of growth. Heartland and Rimland theories; Laws of international boundaries and frontiers.


  • Physical Setting: Space relationship of India with neighbouring countries; Structure and relief; Drainage system and watersheds; Physiographic regions; Mechanism of Indian monsoons and rainfall patterns, Tropical cyclones and western disturbances; Floods and droughts; Climatic regions; Natural vegetation; Soil types and their distributions.

  • Resources: Land, surface and groundwater, energy, minerals, biotic and marine resources; Forest and wild life resources and their conservation; Energy crisis.

  • Agriculture: Infrastructure: irrigation, seeds, fertilizers, power; Institutional factors: land holdings, land tenure and land reforms; Cropping pattern, agricultural productivity, agricultural intensity, crop combination, land capability; Agro and social-forestry; Green revolution and its socio-economic and ecological implications; Significance of dry farming; Livestock resources and white revolution; aquaculture; sericulture, apiculture and poultry; agricultural regionalisation; agro-climatic zones; agro-ecological regions.

  • Industry: Evolution of industries; Locational factors of cotton, jute, textile, iron and steel, aluminium, fertilizer, paper, chemical and pharmaceutical, automobile, cottage and agro-based industries; Industrial houses and complexes including public sector undertakings; Industrial regionalisation; New industrial policies; Multinationals and liberalization; Special Economic Zones; Tourism including eco-tourism.    

  • Transport, Communication and Trade: Road, railway, waterway, airway and pipeline networks and their complementary roles in regional development; Growing importance of ports on national and foreign trade; Trade balance; Trade Policy; Export processing zones; Developments in communication and information technology and their impacts on economy and society; Indian space programme.

  • Cultural Setting: Historical Perspective of Indian Society; Racial, linguistic and ethnic diversities; religious minorities; major tribes, tribal areas and their problems; cultural regions; Growth, distribution and density of population; Demographic attributes: sex-ratio, age structure, literacy rate, work-force, dependency ratio, longevity; migration (inter-regional, intraregional and international) and associated problems; Population problems and policies; Health indicators.

  • Settlements: Types, patterns and morphology of rural settlements; Urban developments; Morphology of Indian cities; Functional classification of Indian cities; Conurbations and metropolitan regions; urban sprawl; Slums and associated problems; town planning; Problems of urbanization and remedies.

  • Regional Development and Planning: Experience of regional planning in India; Five Year Plans; Integrated rural development programmes; Panchayati Raj and decentralised planning; Command area development; Watershed management; Planning for backward area, desert, drought-prone, hill, tribal area development; multi-level planning; Regional planning and development of island territories.

  • Political Aspects: The Geographical basis of Indian federalism; State reorganisation; Emergence of new states; Regional consciousness and interstate issues; international boundary of India and related issues; Cross-border terrorism; India’s role in world affairs; Geopolitics of South Asia and Indian Ocean Realm.

  • Contemporary Issues: Ecological issues: Environmental hazards: landslides, earthquakes, Tsunamis, floods and droughts, epidemics; Issues relating to environmental pollution; Changes in patterns of land use; Principles of environmental impact assessment and environmental management; Population explosion and food security; Environmental degradation; Deforestation, desertification and soil erosion; Problems of agrarian and industrial unrest; Regional disparities in economic development; Concept of sustainable growth and development; Environmental awareness; Linkage of rivers; Globalisation and Indian economy.

NOTE: Candidates will be required to answer one compulsory map question pertinent to subjects covered by this paper.


UPSC Syllabus for Agriculture


  • Ecology and its relevance to man, natural resources, their sustainable management and conservation. Physical and social environment as factors of crop distribution and production. Agro ecology; cropping pattern as indicators of environments. Environmental pollution and associated hazards to crops, animals and humans. Climate change – International conventions and global initiatives. Green house effect and global warming. Advance tools for ecosystem analysis – Remote sensing (RS) and Geographic Information Systems (GIS).

  • Cropping patterns in different agro-climatic zones of the country. Impact of high-yielding and short-duration varieties on shifts in cropping patterns. Concepts of various cropping and farming systems. Organic and Precision farming. Package of practices for production of important cereals, pulses, oil seeds, fibres, sugar, commercial and fodder crops.

  • Important features and scope of various types of forestry plantations such as social forestry, agro-forestry, and natural forests. Propagation of forest plants. Forest products. Agro forestry and value addition. Conservation of forest flora and fauna.

  • Weeds, their characteristics, dissemination and association with various crops; their multiplications; cultural, biological, and chemical control of weeds. Soil- physical, chemical and biological properties. Processes and factors of soil formation. Soils of India. Mineral and organic constituents of soils and their role in maintaining soil productivity. Essential plant nutrients and other beneficial elements in soils and plants. Principles of soil fertility, soil testing and fertilizer recommendations, integrated nutrient management. Biofertilizers. Losses of nitrogen in soil, nitrogen-use efficiency in submerged rice soils, nitrogen fixation in soils. Efficient phosphorus and potassium use. Problem soils and their reclamation. Soil factors affecting greenhouse gas emission.

  • Soil conservation, integrated watershed management. Soil erosion and its management. Dry land agriculture and its problems. Technology for stabilizing agriculture production in rain fed areas. Water-use efficiency in relation to crop production, criteria for scheduling irrigations, ways and means of reducing run-off losses of irrigation water. Rainwater harvesting. Drip and sprinkler irrigation. Drainage of waterlogged soils, quality of irrigation water, effect of industrial effluents on soil and water pollution. Irrigation projects in India.

  • Farm management, scope, importance and characteristics, farm planning. Optimum resource use and budgeting. Economics of different types of farming systems. Marketing management – strategies for development, market intelligence. Price fluctuations and their cost; role of co-operatives in agricultural economy; types and systems of farming and factors affecting them. Agricultural price policy. Crop Insurance.

  • Agricultural extension, its importance and role, methods of evaluation of extension programmes, socio-economic survey and status of big, small and marginal farmers and landless agricultural labourers. Training programmes for extension workers. Role of Krishi Vigyan Kendra’s (KVK) in dissemination of Agricultural technologies. Non Government Organization (NGO) and self-help group approach for rural development.


  • Cell structure, function and cell cycle. Synthesis, structure and function of genetic material. Laws of heredity. Chromosome structure, chromosomal aberrations, linkage and cross-over, and their significance in recombination breeding. Polyploidy, euploids and aneuploids. Mutations – and their role in crop improvement. Heritability, sterility and incompatibility, classification and their application in crop improvement. Cytoplasmic inheritance, sex-linked, sex-influenced and sex-limited characters.

  • History of plant breeding. Modes of reproduction, selfing and crossing techniques. Origin, evolution and domestication of crop plants, center of origin, law of homologous series, crop genetic resources- conservation and utilization. Application of principles of plant breeding, improvement of crop plants. Molecular markers and their application in plant improvement. Pure-line selection, pedigree, mass and recurrent selections, combining ability, its significance in plant breeding. Heterosis and its exploitation. Somatic hybridization. Breeding for disease and pest resistance. Role of interspecific and intergeneric hybridization. Role of genetic engineering and biotechnology in crop improvement. Genetically modified crop plants.

  • Seed production and processing technologies. Seed certification, seed testing and storage. DNA finger printing and seed registration. Role of public and private sectors in seed production and marketing. Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) issues, WTO issues and its impact on Agriculture.

  • Principles of Plant Physiology with reference to plant nutrition, absorption, translocation and metabolism of nutrients. Soil water-plant relationship.

  • Enzymes and plant pigments; photosynthesis-modern concepts and factors affecting the process, aerobic and anaerobic respiration; C3, C4 and CAM mechanisms. Carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism. Growth and development; photoperiodism and vernalilzation. Plant growth substances and their role in crop production. Physiology of seed development and germination; dormancy. Stress physiology – draught, salt and water stress.

  • Major fruits, plantation crops, vegetables, spices and flower crops. Package practices of major horticultural crops. Protected cultivation and high tech horticulture. Post harvest technology and value addition of fruits and vegetables. Landscaping and commercial floriculture. Medicinal and aromatic plants. Role of fruits and vegetables in human nutrition.

  • Diagnosis of pests and diseases of field crops, vegetables, orchard and plantation crops and their economic importance. Classification of pests and diseases and their management. Integrated pest and disease management. Storage pests and their management. Biological control of pests and diseases. Epidemiology and forecasting of major crop pests and diseases. Plant quarantine measures. Pesticides, their formulation and modes of action.

  • Food production and consumption trends in India. Food security and growing population – vision 2020. Reasons for grain surplus. National and international food policies. Production, procurement, distribution constraints. Availability of food grains, per capita expenditure on food. Trends in poverty, Public Distribution System and Below Poverty Line population, Targeted Public Distribution System (PDS), policy implementation in context to globalization. Processing constraints. Relation of food production to National Dietary Guidelines and food consumption pattern. Food based dietary approaches to eliminate hunger. Nutrient deficiency – Micro nutrient deficiency : Protein Energy Malnutrition or Protein Calorie Malnutrition (PEM or PCM), Micro nutrient deficiency and HRD in context of work capacity of women and children. Food grain productivity and food security.  

UPSC Syllabus for Animal Husbandry & Veterinary Science


Animal Nutrition

  • Partitioning of food energy within the animal. Direct and indirect calorimetry. Carbon – nitrogen balance and comparative slaughter methods. Systems for expressing energy value of foods in ruminants, pigs and poultry. Energy requirements for maintenance, growth, pregnancy, lactation, egg, wool, and meat production.

  • Latest advances in protein nutrition. Energy protein interrelationships. Evaluation of protein quality. Use of NPN compounds in ruminant diets. Protein requirements for maintenance, growth, pregnancy, lactation, egg, wool and meat production.

  • Major and trace minerals – Their sources, physiological functions and deficiency symptoms. Toxic minerals. Mineral interactions. Role of fat-soluble and water – soluble vitamins in the body, their sources and deficiency symptoms.

  • Feed additives – methane inhibitors, probiotics, enzymes, antibiotics, hormones, oligosaccharides, antioxidants, emulsifiers, mould inhibitors, buffers etc. Use and abuse of growth promoters like hormones and antibiotics – latest concepts.

  • Conservation of fodders. Storage of feeds and feed ingredients. Recent advances in feed technology and feed processing. Anti – nutritional and toxic factors present in livestock feeds. Feed analysis and quality control. Digestibility trials – direct, indirect and indicator methods. Predicting feed intake in grazing animals.

  • Advances in ruminant nutrition. Nutrient requirements. Balanced rations. Feeding of calves, pregnant, work animals and breeding bulls. Strategies for feeding milch animals during different stages of lactation cycle. Effect of feeding on milk composition. Feeding of goats for meat and milk production. Feeding of sheep for meat and wool production.

  • Swine Nutrition. Nutrient requirements. Creep, starter, grower and finisher rations. Feeding of pigs for lean meat production. Low cost rations for swine.

  • Poultry nutrition. Special features of poultry nutrition. Nutrient requirements for meat and egg production. Formulation of rations for different classes of layers and broilers.

Animal Physiology

  • Physiology of blood and its circulation, respiration; excretion. Endocrine glands in health and disease.

  • Blood constituents – Properties and functions-blood cell formation-Haemoglobin synthesis and chemistry-plasma proteins production, classification and properties, coagulation of blood; Haemorrhagic disorders-anticoagulants-blood groups-Blood volume-Plasma expanders-Buffer systems in blood. Biochemical tests and their significance in disease diagnosis.

  • Circulation – Physiology of heart, cardiac cycle, heart sounds, heart beat, electrocardiograms. Work and efficiency of heart-effect of ions on heart function-metabolism of cardiac muscle, nervous and chemical regulation of heart, effect of temperature and stress on heart, blood pressure and hypertension, osmotic regulation, arterial pulse, vasomotor regulation of circulation, shock. Coronary and pulmonary circulation, Blood-Brain barrier- Cerebrospinal fluid- circulation in birds.

  • Respiration – Mechanism of respiration, Transport and exchange of gases – neural control of respiration-chemo-receptors-hypoxia-respiration in birds.

  • Excretion-Structure and function of kidney-formation of urine-methods of studying renal function-renal regulation of acidbase balance: physiological constituents of urine-renal failure-passive venous congestion-Urinary secretion in chicken-Sweat glands and their function. Bio-chemical test for urinary dysfunction.

  • Endocrine glands – Functional disorders their symptoms and diagnosis. Synthesis of hormones, mechanism and control of secretion- hormonal receptors-classification and function.

  • Growth and Animal Production- Prenatal and postnatal growth, maturation, growth curves, measures of growth, factors affecting growth, conformation, body composition, meat quality.

  • Physiology of Milk Production, Reproduction and Digestion- Current status of hormonal control of mammary development, milk secretion and milk ejection, Male and Female reproductive organs, their components and functions. Digestive organs and their functions.

  • Environmental Physiology- Physiological relations and their regulation; mechanisms of adaptation, environmental factors and regulatory mechanisms involved in animal behaviour, climatology – various parameters and their importance. Animal ecology. Physiology of behaviour. Effect of stress on health and production.

Animal Reproduction

  • Semen quality- Preservation and Artificial Insemination- Components of semen, composition of spermatozoa, chemical and physical properties of ejaculated semen, factors affecting semen in vivo and in vitro. Factors affecting semen production and quality, preservation, composition of diluents, sperm concentration, transport of diluted semen. Deep freezing techniques in cows, sheep, goats, swine and poultry. Detection of oestrus and time of insemination for better conception. Anoestrus and repeat breeding.

Livestock Production and Management

  • Commercial Dairy Farming- Comparison of dairy farming in India with advanced countries. Dairying under mixed farming and as specialized farming, economic dairy farming. Starting of a dairy farm, Capital and land requirement, organization of the dairy farm. Opportunities in dairy farming, factors determining the efficiency of dairy animal. Herd recording, budgeting, cost of milk production, pricing policy; Personnel Management. Developing Practical and Economic rations for dairy cattle; supply of greens throughout the year, feed and fodder requirements of Dairy Farm. Feeding regimes for young stock and bulls, heifers and breeding animals; new trends in feeding young and adult stock; Feeding records.

  • Commercial meat, egg and wool production-Development of practical and economic rations for sheep, goats, pigs, rabbits and poultry. Supply of greens, fodder, feeding regimes for young and mature stock. New trends in enhancing production and management. Capital and land requirements and socio-economic concept.

  • Feeding and management of animals under drought, flood and other natural calamities.


Genetics and Animal Breeding

History of animal genetics. Mitosis and Meiosis: Mendelian inheritance; deviations to Mendelian genetics; Expression of genes; Linkage and crossing over; Sex determination, sex influenced and sex limited characters; Blood groups and polymorphism; Chromosome aberrations; Cytoplasmic inheritance. Gene and its structure; DNA as a genetic material; Genetic code and protein synthesis; Recombinant DNA technology. Mutations, types of mutations, methods for detecting mutations and mutation rate. Trans-genesis.

  • Population Genetics applied to Animal Breeding- Quantitative Vs. qualitative traits; Hardy Weinberg Law; Population Vs. individual; Gene and genotypic frequency; Forces changing gene frequency; Random drift and small populations; Theory of path coefficient; Inbreeding, methods of estimating inbreeding coefficient, systems of inbreeding, Effective population size; Breeding value, estimation of breeding value, dominance and epistatic deviation; Partitioning of variation; Genotype X environment correlation and genotype X environment interaction; role of multiple

  • Breeding Systems- Breeds of live-stock and Poultry. Heritability, repeatability and genetic and phenotypic correlations, their methods of estimation and precision of estimates; Aids to selection and their relative merits; Individual, pedigree, family and within family selection; Progeny testing; Methods of selection; Construction of selection indices and their uses; Comparative evaluation of genetic gains through various selection methods; Indirect selection and correlated response; Inbreeding, out breeding, upgrading, cross-breeding and synthesis of breeds; Crossing of inbred lines for commercial production; Selection for general and specific combining ability; Breeding for threshold characters. Sire index.


  • Basic philosophy, objectives, concept and principles of extension. Different Methods adopted to educate farmers under rural conditions. Generation of technology, its transfer and feedback. Problems and constraints in transfer of technology. Animal husbandry programmes for rural development.


Anatomy, Pharmacology and Hygiene 

  • Histology and Histological Techniques: Paraffin embedding technique of tissue processing and H.E. staining – Freezing microtomy- Microscopy-Bright field microscope and electron microscope. Cytology-structure of cell, organells and inclusions; cell division-cell types- Tissues and their classification-embryonic and adult tissuesComparative histology of organs-Vascular. Nervous, digestive, respiratory, musculo- skeletal and urogenital systemsEndocrine glands -Integuments-sense organs.

  • Embryology – Embryology of vertebrates with special reference to aves and domestic mammals gametogenesis-fertilization-germ layers- foetal membranes and placentation-types of placenta in domestic mammals-Teratology-twins and twinning-organogenesis -germ layer derivatives- endodermal, mesodermal and ectodermal derivates.

  • Bovine Anatomy- Regional Anatomy: Para-nasal sinuses of OX- surface anatomy of salivary glands. Regional anatomy of infraorbital, maxillary, mandibuloalveolar, mental and cornual nerve block. Regional anatomy of paravertebral nerves, pudendal nerve, median ulnar and radial nerves-tibial,fibular and digital nerves-Cranial nerves-structures involved in epidural anaesthesia-superficial lymph nodes-surface anatomy of visceral organs of thoracic, abdominal and pelvic cavities-comparative features of locomotor apparatus and their application in the biomechanics of mammalian body.

  • Anatomy of Fowl- Musculo-skeletal system-functional anatomy in relation to respiration and flying, digestion and egg production.

  • Pharmacology and therapeutic drugs Cellular level of pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics. Drugs acting on fluids and electrolyte balance. Drugs acting on Autonomic nervous system. Modern concepts of anaesthesia and dissociative anaesthetics. Autacoids. Antimicrobials and principles of chemotherapy in microbial infections. Use of hormones in therapeutics-chemotherapy of parasitic infections. Drug and economic concerns in the Edible tissues of animals-chemotherapy of Neoplastic diseases. Toxicity due to insecticides, plants, metals, non-metals, zootoxins and mycotoxins.

  • Veterinary Hygiene with reference to water, air and habitation – Assessment of pollution of water, air and soil-Importance of climate in animal health- effect of environment on animal function and performance-relationship between industrialization and animal agriculture- animal housing requirements for specific categories of domestic animals viz. pregnant cows and sows, milking cows, broiler birds- stress, strain and productivity in relation to animal habitation.


Animal Diseases

  • Etiology, epidemiology pathogenesis, symptoms, postmortem lesions, diagnosis, and control of infectious diseases of cattle, sheep and goat, horses, pigs and poultry.

  • Etiology, epidemiology, symptoms, diagnosis, treatment of production diseases of cattle, horse, pig and poultry.

  • Deficiency diseases of domestic animals and birds.

  • Diagnosis and treatment of non-specific conditions like impaction, Bloat, Diarrhoea, Indigestion, dehydration, stroke, poisoning.

  • Diagnosis and treatment of neurological disorders.

  • Principles and methods of immunization of animals against specific diseasesherd immunity- disease free zones- ‘zero’ disease concept- chemoprophylaxis.

  • Anaesthesia- local, regional and general-preanesthetic medication. Symptoms and surgical interference in fractures and dislocation. Hernia, choking abomasal displacement- Caesarian operations. Rumenotomy-Castrations.

  • Disease investigation techniques.Materials for laboratory investigation- Establishment of Animal Health Centers- Disease free zone.


Veterinary Public Health

  • Zoonoses. – Classification, definition, role of animals and birds in prevalence and transmission of zoonotic diseases- occupational zoonotic diseases.

  • Epidemiology- Principle, definition of epidemiological terms, application of epidemiological measures in the study of diseases and disease control. Epidemiological features of air, water and food borne infections. OIE regulations, WTO, sanitary and phytosanitary measures.

  • Veterinary Jurisprudence- Rules and Regulations for improvement of animal quality and prevention of animal diseases – State and central rules for prevention of animal and animal product borne diseases-S P C A-Veterolegal cases- Certificates Materials and Methods of collection of samples for veterolegal investigation.

Milk and Milk Products Technology

  • Market Milk: Quality, testing and grading of raw milk. Processing, packaging, storing, distribution, marketing, defects and their control. Preparation of the following milks: Pasteurized, standardized, toned, double toned, sterilized, homogenized, reconstituted, recombined and flavoured milks. Preparation of cultured milks, cultures and their management, yoghurt, Dahi, Lassi and Srikhand. Preparation of flavoured and sterilized milks. Legal standards. Sanitation requirement for clean and safe milk and for the milk plant equipment.

  • Milk Products Technology: Selection of raw materials, processing, storing , distributing and marketing milk products such as Cream, Butter, Ghee, Khoa, Channa, Cheese, condensed, evaporated, dried milk and baby food, Ice cream and Kulfi; by-products, whey products, butter milk, lactose and casein. Testing, grading, judging milk products- BIS and Agmark specifications, legal standards, quality control and nutritive properties. Packaging, processing and operational control. Costing of dairy products.


5Meat Hygiene and Technology

  • Meat Hygiene
    Ante mortem care and management of food animals, stunning, slaughter and dressing operations; abattoir requirements and designs; Meat inspection procedures and judgment of carcass meat cuts- grading of carcass meat cuts- duties and functions of Veterinarians in wholesome meat production. 

  • Hygienic methods of handling production of meat- Spoilage of meat and control measures- Post – slaughter physicochemical changes in meat and factors that influence them- Quality improvement methods – Adulteration of meat and detection Regulatory provisions in Meat trade and Industry.

  • Meat Technology
    Physical and chemical characteristics of meat- Meat emulsions- Methods of preservation of meat- Curing, canning, irradiation, packaging of meat and meat products, processing and formulations.

  • By- products- Slaughter house by- products and their utilization- Edible and inedible by products- Social and economic implications of proper utilization of slaughter house by-products- Organ products for food and pharmaceuticals.

  • Poultry Products Technology- Chemical composition and nutritive value of poultry meat, pre – slaughter care and management. Slaughtering techniques, inspection, preservation of poultry meat and products. Legal and BIS standards. Structure, composition and nutritive value of eggs. Microbial spoilage. Preservation and maintenance. Marketing of poultry meat, eggs and products. Value added meat products.

  • Rabbit/Fur Animal farming – Rabbit meat production. Disposal and utilization of fur and wool and recycling of waste by products. Grading of wool.

UPSC Anthropology syllabus


  • Meaning, scope and development of Anthropology.

    • Relationships with other disciplines: Social Sciences, Behavioural Sciences, Life Sciences, Medical Sciences, Earth Sciences and Humanities.

    • Main branches of Anthropology, their scope and relevance: 
      (a)Social- cultural Anthropology. 
      (b) Biological Anthropology. 
      (c) Archaeological Anthropology. 
      (d) Linguistic Anthropology.

    • Human Evolution and emergence of Man: 
      (a) Biological and Cultural factors in human evolution. 
      (b) Theories of Organic Evolution (PreDarwinian, Darwinian and Post-Darwinian). 
      (c) Synthetic theory of evolution; Brief outline of terms and concepts of evolutionary biology (Doll’s rule, Cope’s rule, Gause’s rule, parallelism, convergence, adaptive radiation, and mosaic evolution).

    • Characteristics of Primates; Evolutionary Trend and Primate Taxonomy; Primate Adaptations; (Arboreal and Terrestrial) Primate Taxonomy; Primate Behaviour; Tertiary and Quaternary fossil primates; Living Major Primates; Comparative Anatomy of Man and Apes; Skeletal changes due to erect posture and its implications.

    • Phylogenetic status, characteristics and geographical distribution of the following: 
      (a)Plio-pleistocene hominids in South and East Africa – Australopithecines. 
      (b) Homo erectus: Africa (Paranthropus), Europe (Homoerectus

    • heidelbergensis), Asia (Homo erectus javanicus, Homo erectus pekinensis). 
      (c) Neanderthal Man- La-Chapelle-auxsaints (Classical type), Mt. Carmel (Progressive type). 
      (d) Rhodesian man. 
      (e) Homo sapiens — Cromagnon, Grimaldi andChancelede.

    • The biological basis of life: The Cell, DNA structure and replication, Protein Synthesis, Gene, Mutation, Chromosomes, and Cell Division.

    • (a) Principles of Prehistoric Archaeology. Chronology: Relative and Absolute Dating methods. 
      (b) Cultural Evolution- Broad Outlines of Prehistoric cultures:
      i. Paleolithic
      ii. Mesolithic
      iii. Neolithic
      iv. Chalcolithic
      v. Copper-Bronze Age
      vi. Iron Age


  • The Nature of Culture : The concept and characteristics of culture and civilization; Ethnocentrism vis-à-vis cultural Relativism.

    • The Nature of Society: Concept of Society; Society and Culture; Social Institutions; Social groups; and Social stratification.

    • Marriage: Definition and universality; Laws of marriage (endogamy, exogamy, hypergamy, hypogamy, incest taboo); Types of marriage (monogamy, polygamy, polyandry, group marriage). Functions of marriage; Marriage regulations (preferential, prescriptive and proscriptive); Marriage payments (bride wealth and dowry).

    • Family: Definition and universality; Family, household and domestic groups; functions of family; Types of family (from the perspectives of structure, blood relation, marriage, residence and succession); Impact of urbanization, industrialization and feminist movements on family.

    • Kinship: Consanguinity and Affinity; Principles and types of descent (Unilineal, Double, Bilateral, Ambilineal); Forms of descent groups (lineage, clan, phratry, moiety and kindred); Kinship terminology (descriptive and classificatory); Descent, Filiation and Complimentary Filiation; Descent and Alliance.


  • Economic organization: Meaning, scope and relevance of economic anthropology; Formalist and Substantivist debate; Principles governing production, distribution and exchange (reciprocity, redistribution and market), in communities, subsisting on hunting and gathering, fishing, swiddening, pastoralism, horticulture, and agriculture; globalization and indigenous economic systems.


  • Political organization and Social Control: Band, tribe, chiefdom, kingdom and state; concepts of power, authority and legitimacy; social control, law and justice in simple societies.


  • Religion: Anthropological approaches to the study of religion (evolutionary, psychological and functional); monotheism and polytheism; sacred and profane; myths and rituals; forms of religion in tribal and peasant societies (animism, animatism, fetishism, naturism and totemism); religion, magic and science distinguished; magicoreligious functionaries (priest, shaman, medicine man, sorcerer and witch).


  • Anthropological theories:

    • Classical evolutionism (Tylor, Morgan and Frazer)

    •  Historical particularism (Boas); Diffusionism (British, German and American) 

    • Functionalism (Malinowski); Structural-functionlism (Radcliffe-Brown) 

    •  Structuralism (L’evi – Strauss and E.Leach) 

    • Culture and personality (Benedict, Mead, Linton, Kardiner and Cora – du Bois). 

    • Neo – evolutionism (Childe, White, Steward, Sahlins and Service) 

    • Cultural materialism (Harris) 

    • Symbolic and interpretive theories (Turner, Schneider and Geertz) 

    • Cognitive theories (Tyler, Conklin) 

    • Post- modernism in anthropology


  • Culture, language and communication: Nature, origin and characteristics of language; verbal and non-verbal communication; social context of language use.


  • Research methods in anthropology:
    (a) Fieldwork tradition in anthropology 
    (b) Distinction between technique, method and methodology 
    (c) Tools of data collection: observation, interview, schedules, questionnaire, Case study, genealogy, life-history, oral history, secondary sources of information, participatory methods. 
    (d) Analysis, interpretation and presentation of data.


  • Human Genetics : Methods and Application: Methods for study of genetic principles in man-family study (pedigree analysis, twin study, foster child, co-twin method, cytogenetic method, chromosomal and karyo-type analysis), biochemical methods, immunological methods, D.N.A. technology and recombinant technologies.

    • Mendelian genetics in man-family study, single factor, multifactor, lethal, sublethal and polygenic inheritance in man.

    • Concept of genetic polymorphism and selection, Mendelian population, HardyWeinberg law; causes and changes which bring down frequency – mutation, isolation, migration, selection, inbreeding and genetic drift. Consanguineous and non-consanguineous mating, genetic load, genetic effect of consanguineous and cousin marriages.

    • Chromosomes and chromosomal aberrations in man, methodology. 
      (a) Numerical and structural aberrations (disorders). 
      (b) Sex chromosomal aberrations – Klinefelter (XXY), Turner (XO), Super female (XXX), intersex and other syndromic disorders. 
      (c) Autosomal aberrations – Down syndrome, Patau, Edward and Cri-du-chat syndromes.(d) Genetic imprints in human disease, genetic screening, genetic counseling, human DNA profiling, gene mapping and genome study.

    • Race and racism, biological basis of morphological variation of non-metric and metric characters. Racial criteria, racial traits in relation to heredity and environment; biological basis of racial classification, racial differentiation and race crossing in man.

    • Age, sex and population variation as genetic marker- ABO, Rh blood groups, HLA Hp, transferring, Gm, blood enzymes. Physiological characteristics-Hb level, body fat, pulse rate, respiratory functions and sensory perceptions in different cultural and socio-economic groups.

    • Concepts and methods of Ecological Anthropology. Bio-cultural Adaptations – Genetic and Non- genetic factors. Man’s physiological responses to environmental stresses: hot desert, cold, high altitude climate.

    • Epidemiological Anthropology: Health and disease. Infectious and non-infectious diseases. Nutritional deficiency related diseases.


  • Concept of human growth and development: stages of growth – pre-natal, natal, infant, childhood, adolescence, maturity, senescence.

    • Factors affecting growth and development genetic, environmental, biochemical, nutritional, cultural and socio-economic. 

    • Ageing and senescence. Theories and observations – biological and chronological longevity. Human physique and somatotypes. Methodologies for growth studies.


  • Relevance of menarche, menopause and other bioevents to fertility. Fertility patterns and differentials.

    • Demographic theories- biological, social and cultural.

    • Biological and socio-ecological factors influencing fecundity, fertility, natality and mortality.


  •  Applications of Anthropology: Anthropology of sports, Nutritional anthropology, Anthropology in designing of defence and other equipments, Forensic Anthropology, Methods and principles of personal identification and reconstruction, Applied human genetics – Paternity diagnosis, genetic counseling and eugenics, DNA technology in diseases and medicine, serogenetics and cytogenetics in reproductive biology.



  • Evolution of the Indian Culture and Civilization —

    • Prehistoric (Palaeolithic, Mesolithic, Neolithic and Neolithic Chalcolithic). Protohistoric (Indus Civilization): Pre- Harappan, Harappan and postHarappan cultures. Contributions of tribal cultures to Indian civilization.

    • Palaeo – anthropological evidences from India with special reference to Siwaliks and Narmada basin (Ramapithecus, Sivapithecus and Narmada Man). 1.3 Ethno-archaeology in India : The concept of ethno-archaeology; Survivals and Parallels among the hunting, foraging, fishing, pastoral and peasant communities including arts and crafts producing communities.

  • Demographic profile of India

    • Ethnic and linguistic elements in the Indian population and their distribution. Indian population  factors influencing its structure and growth.

  • The structure and nature of traditional Indian social system —

    • Varnashram, Purushartha, Karma, Rina and Rebirth.

    • Caste system in India- structure and characteristics, Varna and caste, Theories of origin of caste system, Dominant caste, Caste mobility, Future of caste system, Jajmani system, Tribe- caste continuum.

    • Sacred Complex and Nature- Man-Spirit Complex.

    • Impact of Buddhism, Jainism, Islam and Christianity on Indian society.


  • Emergence and growth of anthropology in India-Contributions of the 18th, 19th and early 20th Century scholar-administrators. Contributions of Indian anthropologists to tribal and caste studies.


  • Indian Village: Significance of village study in India; Indian village as a social system; Traditional and changing patterns of settlement and inter-caste relations; Agrarian relations in Indian villages; Impact of globalization on Indian villages.

    • Linguistic and religious minorities and their social, political and economic status.

    • Indigenous and exogenous processes of socio-cultural change in Indian society: Sanskritization, Westernization, Modernization; Inter-play of little and great traditions; Panchayati raj and social change; Media and social change.


  • Tribal situation in India – Bio-genetic variability, linguistic and socio-economic characteristics of tribal populations and their distribution.

    • Problems of the tribal Communities — land alienation, poverty, indebtedness, low literacy, poor educational facilities, unemployment, underemployment, health and nutrition.

    • Developmental projects and their impact on tribal displacement and problems of rehabilitation. Development of forest policy and tribals. Impact of urbanization and industrialization on tribal populations.


  • Problems of exploitation and deprivation of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes. Constitutional safeguards for Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled Castes.

    • Social change and contemporary tribal societies: Impact of modern democratic institutions, development programmes and welfare measures on tribals and weaker sections.

    • The concept of ethnicity; Ethnic conflicts and political developments; Unrest among tribal communities; Regionalism and demand for autonomy; Pseudo-tribalism; Social change among the tribes during colonial and post-Independent India.


  • Impact of Hinduism, Buddhism, Christianity, Islam and other religions on tribal societies.

    • Tribe and nation state — a comparative study of tribal communities in India and other countries.


  • History of administration of tribal areas, tribal policies, plans, programmes of tribal development and their implementation. The concept of PTGs (Primitive Tribal Groups), their distribution, special programmes for their development. Role of N.G.O.s in tribal development.

    • Role of anthropology in tribal and rural development.

    • Contributions of anthropology to the understanding of regionalism, communalism, and ethnic and political movements.    


UPSC Syllabus for Botany Optional Subject.



Microbiology and Plant Pathology:

  • Structure and reproduction/multiplication of viruses, viroids, bacteria, fungi and mycoplasma; Applications of microbiology in agriculture, industry, medicine and in control of soil and water pollution; Prion and Prion hypothesis. Important crop diseases caused by viruses, bacteria, mycoplasma, fungi and nematodes; Modes of infection and dissemination; Molecular basis of infection and disease resistance/defence; Physiology of parasitism and control measures; Fungal toxins; Modelling and disease forecasting; Plant quarantine.


  • Algae, fungi, lichens, bryophytes, pteridophytes – structure and reproduction from evolutionary viewpoint; Distribution of Cryptogams in India and their ecological and economic importance.


  • Gymnosperms: Concept of Progymnosperms; Classification and distribution of gymnosperms; Salient features of Cycadales, Ginkgoales, Coniferales and Gnetales, their structure and reproduction; General account of Cycadofilicales, Bennettitales and Cordaitales; Geological time scale; Type of fossils and their study techniques. Angiosperms: Systematics, anatomy, embryology, palynology and phylogeny.

  • Taxonomic hierarchy; International Code of Botanical Nomenclature; Numerical taxonomy and chemotaxonomy; Evidence from anatomy, embryology and palynology. Origin and evolution of angiosperms; Comparative account of various systems of classification of angiosperms; Study of angiospermic families – Mangnoliaceae, Ranunculaceae, Brassicaceae, Rosaceae, Fabaceae, Euphorbiaceae, Malvaceae, Dipterocarpaceae, Apiaceae, Asclepiadaceae, Verbenaceae, Solanaceae, Rubiaceae, Cucurbitaceae, Asteraceae, Poaceae, Arecaceae, Liliaceae, Musaceae and Orchidaceae.

  • Stomata and their types; Glandular and non-glandular trichomes; Unusual secondary growth; Anatomy of C3 and C4 plants; Xylem and phloem differentiation; Wood anatomy.

  • Development of male and female gametophytes, pollination, fertilization; Endosperm – its development and function; Patterns of embryo development; Polyembroyony and apomixes; Applications of palynology; Experimental embryology including pollen storage and test-tube fertilization.

Plant Resource Development:

  • Domestication and introduction of plants; Origin of cultivated plants; Vavilov’s centres of origin; Plants as sources for food, fodder, fibre, spices, beverages, edible oils, drugs, narcotics, insecticides, timber, gums, resins and dyes, latex, cellulose, starch and its products; Perfumery; Importance of Ethnobotany in Indian context; Energy plantations; Botanical Gardens and Herbaria.


  • Totipotency, polarity, symmetry and dfferentiation; Cell, tissue, organ and protoplast culture; Somatic hybrids and Cybrids; Micropropagation; Somaclonal variation and its applications; Pollen haploids, embryo rescue methods and their applications.



Cell Biology:

  • Techniques of cell biology; Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells – structural and ultra-structural details; Structure and function of extra-cellular matrix (cell wall), membranes-cell adhesion, membrane transport and vesicular transport; Structure and function of cell organelles (chloroplasts, mitochondria, ER, dictyo-somes ribosomes, endosomes, lysosomes, peroxisomes); Cytoskelaton and microtubules; Nucleus, nucleolus, nuclear pore complex; Chromatin and nucleosome; Cell signalling and cell receptors; Signal transduction; Mitosis and meiosis; Molecular basis of cell cycle; Numerical and structural variations in chromosomes and their significance; Chromatin organization and packaging of genome; Polytene chromosomes; B-chromosomes – structure, behaviour and significance.

Genetics, Molecular Biology and Evolution:

  • Development of genetics; Gene versus allele concepts (Pseudoalleles); Quantitative genetics and multiple factors; Incomplete dominance, polygenic inheritance, multiple alleles; Linkage and crossing over; Methods of gene mapping, including molecular maps (idea of mapping function); Sex chromosomes and sex-linked inheritance, sex determination and molecular basis of sex differentiation; Mutations (biochemical and molecular basis); Cytoplasmic inheritance and cytoplasmic genes (including genetics of male sterility).

  • Structure and synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins; Genetic code and regulation of gene expression; Gene silencing; Multigene families; Organic evolution – evidences, mechanism and theories. Role of RNA in origin and evolution.

Plant Breeding, Biotechnology and Biostatistics:

  • Methods of plant breeding – introduction, selection and hybridization (pedigree, backcross, mass selection, bulk method); Mutation, polyploidy, male sterility and heterosis breeding; Use of apomixes in plant breeding; DNA sequencing; Genetic engineering – methods of transfer of genes; Transgenic crops and biosafety aspects; Development and use of molecular markers in plant breeding; Tools and techniques – probe, southern blotting, DNA fingerprinting, PCR and FISH.

  • Standard deviation and coefficient of variation (CV); Tests of significance (Z-test, t-test and chi-square test); Probability and distributions (normal, binomial and Poisson); Correlation and regression.

Physiology and Biochemistry:

  • Water relations, mineral nutrition and ion transport, mineral deficiencies; Photosynthesis – photochemical reactions; photo-phosphorylation and carbon fixation pathways; C3, C4 and CAM pathways; Mechanism of phloem transport; Respiration (anerobic and aerobic, including fermentation) – electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation; Photorespiration; Chemiosmotic theory and ATP synthesis; Lipid metabolism; Nitrogen fixation and nitrogen metabolism; Enzymes, coenzymes; Energy transfer and energy conservation; Importance of secondary metabolites; Pigments as photoreceptors (plastidial pigments and phytochrome); Plant movements; Photoperiodism and flowering, vernalization, senescence; Growth substances – their chemical nature, role and applications in agri-horticulture; Growth indices, growth movements; Stress physiology (heat, water, salinity, metal); Fruit and seed physiology; Dormancy, storage and germination of seed; Fruit ripening – its molecular basis and manipulation.

Ecology and Plant Geography:

  • Concept of ecosystem; Ecological factors; Concepts and dynamics of community; Plant succession; Concept of biosphere; Ecosystems; Conservation; Pollution and its control (including phytoremediation); Plant indicators; Environment (Protection) Act.

  • Forest types of India – Ecological and economic importance of forests, afforestation, deforestation and social forestry; Endangered plants, endemism, IUCN categories, Red Data Books; Biodiversity and its conservation; Protected Area Network; Convention on Biological Diversity; Farmers’ Rights and Intellectual Property Rights; Concept of Sustainable Development; Biogeochemical cycles; Global warming and climatic change; Invasive species; Environmental Impact Assessment; Phytogeographical regions of India.  


UPSC Syllabus for Chemistry Optional.


Atomic Structure:

  • Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, Schrodinger wave equation (time independent); Interpretation of wave function, particle in one-dimensional box, quantum numbers, hydrogen atom wave functions; Shapes of s, p and d orbitals.

Chemical Bonding:

  • Ionic bond, characteristics of ionic compounds, lattice energy, Born-Haber cycle; covalent bond and its general characteristics, polarities of bonds in molecules and their dipole moments; Valence bond theory, concept of resonance and resonance energy; Molecular orbital theory (LCAO method); bonding in H2+, H2, He2+ to Ne2, NO, CO, HF, and CN–; Comparison of valence bond and molecular orbital theories, bond order, bond strength and bond length.

Solid State:

  • Crystal systems; Designation of crystal faces, lattice structures and unit cell; Bragg’s law; X-ray diffraction by crystals; Close packing, radius ratio rules, calculation of some limiting radius ratio values; Structures of NaCl, ZnS, CsCl and CaF2; Stoichiometric and nonstoichiometric defects, impurity defects, semi-conductors.

The Gaseous State and Transport Phenomenon:

  • Equation of state for real gases, inter-molecular interactions and critical phenomena and liquefaction of gases, Maxwell’s distribution of speeds, intermolecular collisions, collisions on the wall and effusion; Thermal conductivity and viscosity of ideal gases.

Liquid State:

  • Kelvin equation; Surface tension and surface energy, wetting and contact angle, interfacial tension and capillary action.


  • Work, heat and internal energy; first law of thermodynamics.

  • Second law of thermodynamics; entropy as a state function, entropy changes in various processes, entropy– reversibility and irreversibility, Free energy functions; Thermodynamic equation of state; Maxwell relations; Temperature, volume and pressure dependence of U, H, A, G, Cp and Cvá and â; J-T effect and inversion temperature; criteria for equilibrium, relation between equilibrium constant and thermodynamic quantities; Nernst heat theorem, introductory idea of third law of thermodynamics.

Phase Equilibria and Solutions:

  • Clausius-Clapeyron equation; phase diagram for a pure substance; phase equilibria in binary systems, partially miscible liquids–upper and lower critical solution temperatures; partial molar quantities, their significance and determination; excess thermodynamic functions and their determination.


  • Debye-Huckel theory of strong electrolytes and Debye-Huckel limiting Law for various equilibrium and transport properties. Galvanic cells, concentration cells; electrochemical series, measurement of e.m.f. of cells and its applications fuel cells and batteries. Processes at electrodes; double layer at the interface; rate of charge transfer, current density; over-potential; electro-analytical techniques: Polarography, amperometry, ion selective electrodes and their uses. 

Chemical Kinetics:

  • Differential and integral rate equations for zeroth, first, second and fractional order reactions; Rate equations involving reverse, parallel, consecutive and chain reactions; branching chain and explosions; effect of temperature and pressure on rate constant; Study of fast reactions by stopflow and relaxation methods; Collisions and transition state theories.


  • Absorption of light; decay of excited state by different routes; photochemical reactions between hydrogen and halogens and their quantum yields.

Surface Phenomena and Catalysis:

  • Absorption from gases and solutions on solid adsorbents, Langmuir and B.E.T. adsorption isotherms; determination of surface area, characteristics and mechanism of reaction on heterogeneous catalysts.

Bio-inorganic Chemistry:

  • Metal ions in biological systems and their role in ion transport across the membranes (molecular mechanism), oxygen-uptake proteins, cytochromes and ferredoxins.

Coordination Compounds:

(i) Bonding theories of metal complexes; Valence bond theory, crystal field theory and its modifications; applications of theories in the explanation of magnetism and electronic spectra of metal complexes.

(ii)   Isomerism in coordination compounds; IUPAC nomenclature of coordination compounds; stereochemistry of complexes with 4 and 6 coordination numbers; chelate effect and polynuclear complexes; trans effect and its theories; kinetics of substitution reactions in square-planer complexes; thermodynamic and kinetic stability of complexes.

(iii)   EAN rule, Synthesis structure and reactivity of metal carbonyls; carboxylate anions, carbonyl hydrides and metal nitrosyl compounds.

(iv)   Complexes with aromatic systems, synthesis, structure and bonding in metal olefin complexes, alkyne complexes and cyclopentadienyl complexes; coordinative unsaturation, oxidative addition reactions, insertion reactions, fluxional molecules and their characterization; Compounds with metal-metal bonds and metal atom clusters.

Main Group Chemistry:

  • Boranes, borazines, phosphazenes and cyclic phosphazene, silicates and silicones, Interhalogen compounds; Sulphur – nitrogen compounds, noble gas compounds.

General Chemistry of ‘f’ Block Elements:

  • Lanthanides and actinides; separation, oxidation states, magnetic and spectral properties; lanthanide contraction.



Delocalised Covalent Bonding:

  • Aromaticity, anti-aromaticity; annulenes, azulenes, tropolones, fulvenes, sydnones.

  Reaction Mechanisms: 

  • General methods (both kinetic and non-kinetic) of study of mechanism of organic reactions: isotopic method, cross-over experiment, intermediate trapping, stereochemistry; energy of activation; thermodynamic control and kinetic control of reactions.

  • Reactive Intermediates: Generation, geometry, stability and reactions of carbonium ions and carbanions, free radicals, carbenes, benzynes and nitrenes.  

  • Substitution Reactions: SN1, SN2 and SNi mechanisms; neighbouring group participation; electrophilic and nucleophilic reactions of aromatic compounds including heterocyclic compounds–pyrrole, furan, thiophene and indole.  

  • Elimination Reactions: E1, E2 and E1cb mechanisms; orientation in E2 reactions–Saytzeff andHoffmann; pyrolytic syn elimination – Chugaev and Cope eliminations.  

  • Addition Reactions: Electrophilic addition to C=C and C=C; nucleophilic addition to C=0, C=N,conjugated olefins and carbonyls.  

  • Reactions and Rearrangements: 

    • Pinacol-pinacolone, Hoffmann, Beckmann, Baeyer–Villiger,Favorskii, Fries, Claisen, Cope, Stevens and Wagner-Meerwein rearrangements. 

    • Aldol condensation, Claisen condensation, Dieckmann, Perkin, Knoevenagel, Witting, Clemmensen, Wolff-Kishner, Cannizzaro and von Richter reactions; Stobbe, benzoin and acyloin condensations; Fischer indole synthesis, Skraup synthesis, Bischler-Napieralski, Sandmeyer, Reimer-Tiemann and Reformatsky reactions.

Pericyclic Reactions:

  • Classification and examples; Woodward-Hoffmann rules – electrocyclic reactions, cycloaddition reactions [2+2 and 4+2] and sigmatropic shifts [1, 3; 3, 3 and 1, 5] FMO approach.

  • Preparation and Properties of Polymers: Organic polymers–polyethy-lene, polystyrene, polyvinyl chloride, teflon, nylon, terylene, synthetic and natural rubber.

  • Biopolymers: Structure of proteins, DNA and RNA.

Synthetic Uses of Reagents:

  • OsO4, HIO4, CrO3, Pb(OAc)4, SeO2, NBS, B2H6, Na-Liquid NH3, LiAlH4, NaBH4, n-BuLi and MCPBA.

  • Photochemistry: Photochemical reactions of simple organic compounds, excited and ground states, singlet and triplet states, Norrish-Type I and Type II reactions.


  • Principle and applications in structure elucidation: 

  • Rotational: Diatomic molecules; isotopic substitution and rotational constants. 

  •  Vibrational: Diatomic molecules, linear tri- satomic molecules, specific frequencies of functional groups in polyatomic molecules.   

  •  Electronic: Singlet and triplet states; n π* and π π*  transitions; application to conjugated double bonds and conjugated carbonyls–Woodward-Fieser rules; Charge transfer spectra.

  • Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (1H NMR): Basic principle; chemical shift and spin-spin interaction and coupling constants. 

  • Mass Spectrometry: Parent peak, base peak, metastable peak, McLafferty rearrangement.    

UPSC Syllabus for Civil Engineering Optional.


  • Engineering Mechanics, Strength of Materials and Structural Analysis:

    • Engineering Mechanics: Units and Dimensions, SI Units, Vectors, Concept of Force, Concept of particle and rigid body. Concurrent, Non Concurrent and parallel forces in a plane, moment of force, free body diagram, conditions of equilibrium, Principle of virtual work, equivalent force system. First and Second Moment of area, Mass moment of Inertia. Static Friction. Kinematics and Kinetics: Kinematics in Cartesian Co-ordinates, motion under uniform and non-uniform acceleration, motion under gravity. Kinetics of particle: Momentum and Energy principles, collision of elastic bodies, rotation of rigid bodies.

    • Strength of Materials: Simple Stress and Strain, Elastic constants, axially loaded compression members, Shear force and bending moment, theory of simple bending, Shear Stress distribution across cross sections, Beams of uniform strength. Deflection of beams: Macaulay’s method, Mohr’s Moment area method, Conjugate beam method, unit load method. Torsion of Shafts, Elastic stability of columns, Euler’s Rankine’s and Secant formulae.

    • Structural Analysis: Castiglianio’s theorems I and II, unit load method of consistent deformation applied to beams and pin jointed trusses. Slopedeflection, moment distribution, Rolling loads and Influences lines: Influences lines for Shear Force and Bending moment at a section of beam. Criteria for maximum shear force and bending Moment in beams traversed by a system of moving loads. Influences lines for simply supported plane pin jointed trusses. Arches: Three hinged, two hinged and fixed arches, rib shortening and temperature effects. Matrix methods of analysis: Force method and displacement method of analysis of indeterminate beams and rigid frames. Plastic Analysis of beams and frames: Theory of plastic bending, plastic analysis, statical method, Mechanism method. Unsymmetrical bending: Moment of inertia, product of inertia, position of Neutral Axis and Principle axes, calculation of bending stresses.


  • Design of Structures: Steel, Concrete and Masonry Structures:

    • Structural Steel Design: Structural Steel: Factors of safety and load factors. Riveted, bolted and welded joints and connections. Design of tension and compression member, beams of built up section, riveted and welded plate girders, gantry girders, stancheons with battens and lacings.

    • Design of Concrete and Masonry Structures: Concept of mix design. Reinforced Concrete: Working Stress and Limit State method of design– Recommendations of I.S. codes Design of one way and two way slabs, stair-case slabs, simple and continuous beams of rectangular, T and L sections. Compression members under direct load with or without eccentricity, Cantilever and Counter fort type retaining walls. Water tanks: Design requirements for Rectangular and circular tanks resting on ground. Prestressed concrete: Methods and systems of prestressing, anchorages, Analysis and design of sections for flexure based on working stress, loss of prestress. Design of brick masonry as per I.S. Codes


  • Fluid Mechanics, Open Channel Flow and Hydraulic Machines:

    • Fluid Mechanics: Fluid properties and their role in fluid motion, fluid statics including forces acting on plane and curved surfaces. Kinematics and Dynamics of Fluid flow: Velocity and accelerations, stream lines, equation of continuity, irrotational and rotational flow, velocity potential and stream functions. Continuity, momentum and energy equation, Navier-Stokes equation, Euler’s equation of motion, application to fluid flow problems, pipe flow, sluice gates, weirs.

    • Dimensional Analysis and Similitude:   Buckingham’s Pi-theorem, dimensionless parameters.  

    • Laminar Flow: Laminar flow between parallel, stationary and moving plates, flow through tube.

    • Boundary layer: Laminar and turbulent boundary layer on a flat plate, laminar sub layer, smooth and rough boundaries, drag and lift. Turbulent flow through pipes: Characteristics of turbulent flow, velocity distribution and variation of pipe friction factor, hydraulic grade line and total energy line.

    • Open channel flow: Uniform and non-uniform flows, momentum and energy correction factors, specific energy and specific force, critical depth, rapidly varied flow, hydraulic jump, gradually varied flow, classification of surface profiles, control section, step method of integration of varied flow equation.

    • Hydraulic Machines and Hydropower: Hydraulic turbines, types classification, Choice of turbines, performance parameters, controls, characteristics, specific speed. Principles of hydropower development.


  • Geotechnical Engineering:

    • Soil Type and structure – gradation and particle size distribution – consistency limits. Water in soil – capillary and structural – effective stress and pore water pressure – permeability concept – field and laboratory determination of permeability – Seepage pressure – quick sand conditions – Shear strength determination – Mohr Coulomb concept. Compaction of soil – Laboratory and field tests. Compressibility and consolidation concept – consolidation theory – consolidation settlement analysis. Earth pressure theory and analysis for retaining walls, Application for sheet piles and Braced excavation. Bearing capacity of soil – approaches for analysis – Field tests – settlement analysis – stability of slope of earth walk. Subsurface exploration of soils – methods Foundation – Type and selection criteria for foundation of structures – Design criteria for foundation – Analysis of distribution of stress for footings and pile – pile group action-pile load test. Ground improvement techniques.



  • Construction Technology, Equipment, Planning and Management:

    • Construction Technology: Engineering Materials: Physical properties of construction materials with respect to their use in construction – Stones, Bricks and Tiles; Lime, Cement, different types of Mortars and Concrete. Specific use of ferro cement, fibre reinforced C.C, High strength concrete. Timber, properties and defects – common preservation treatments. Use and selection of materials for specific use like Low Cost Housing, Mass Housing, High Rise Buildings.

    • Construction: Masonry principles using Brick, stone, Blocks – construction detailing and strength characteristics. Types of plastering, pointing, flooring, roofing and construction features. Common repairs in buildings. Principles of functional planning of building for residents and specific use – Building code provisions. Basic principles of detailed and approximate estimating – specification writing and rate analysis – principles of valuation of real property. Machinery for earthwork, concreting and their specific uses – Factors affecting selection of equipments – operating cost of Equipments.

    • Construction Planning and Management: Construction activity – schedules- organization for construction industry – Quality assurance principles. Use of Basic principles of network – analysis in form of CPM and PERT – their use in construction monitoring, Cost optimization and resource allocation. Basic principles of Economic analysis and methods. Project profitability – Basic principles of Boot approach to financial planning – simple toll fixation criterions.


  • Surveying and Transportation Engineering :

    • Surveying: Common methods and instruments for distance and angle measurement for CE work – their use in plane table, traverse survey, leveling work, triangulation, contouring and topographical map. Basic principles of photogrammetry and remote sensing.

    • Railway Engineering: Permanent way – components, types and their functions – Functions and Design constituents of turn and crossings – Necessity of geometric design of track – Design of station and yards.

    • Highway Engineering: Principles of Highway alignments – classification and geometrical design elements and standards for Roads. Pavement structure for flexible and rigid pavements – Design principles and methodology of pavements. Typical construction methods and standards of materials for stabilized soil, WBM, Bituminous works and CC roads. Surface and sub-surface drainage arrangements for roads – culvert structures. Pavement distresses and strengthening by overlays. Traffic surveys and their applications in traffic planning – Typical design features for channelized, intersection, rotary etc – signal designs – standard Traffic signs and markings.


  • Hydrology, Water Resources and Engineering:

    • Hydrology: Hydrological cycle, precipitation, evaporation, transpiration, infiltration, overland flow, hydrograph, flood frequency analysis, flood routing through a reservoir, channel flow routing-Muskingam method.

    • Ground water flow: Specific yield, storage coefficient, coefficient of permeability, confined and unconfined equifers, aquifers, aquitards, radial flow into a well under confined and unconfined conditions.

    • Water Resources Engineering: Ground and surface water resource, single and multipurpose projects, storage capacity of reservoirs, reservoir losses, reservoir sedimentation.

    • Irrigation Engineering: 

      •  Water requirements of crops: consumptive use, duty and delta, irrigation methods and their efficiencies.

      • Canals: Distribution systems for canal irrigation, canal capacity, canal losses, alignment of main and distributor canals, most efficient section, lined canals, their design, regime theory, critical shear stress, bed load.

      • Water logging: causes and control, salinity. 

      • Canal structures: Design of, head regulators, canal falls, aqueducts, metering flumes and canal outlets. 

      • Diversion headwork: Principles and design of weirs of permeable and impermeable foundation, Khosla’s theory, energy dissipation. 

      • Storage works: Types of dams, design, principles of rigid gravity, stability analysis.

      • Spillways: Spillway types, energy dissipation. 

      • River training: Objectives of river training, methods of river training.



  • Environmental Engineering:

    • Water Supply: Predicting demand for water, impurities of water and their significance, physical, chemical and bacteriological analysis, waterborne diseases, standards for potable water.

    • Intake of water: Water treatment: principles of coagulation, flocculation and sedimentation; slow-; rapid-, pressure-, filters; chlorination, softening, removal of taste, odour and salinity.

    • Sewerage systems: Domestic and industrial wastes, storm sewage–separate and combined systems, flow through sewers, design of sewers.

    • Sewage characterization: BOD, COD, solids, dissolved oxygen, nitrogen and TOC. Standards of disposal in normal watercourse and on land.

    • Sewage treatment: Working principles, units, chambers, sedimentation tanks, trickling filters, oxidation ponds, activated sludge process, septic tank, disposal of sludge, recycling of wastewater.

    • Solid waste: Collection and disposal in rural and urban contexts, management of long-term ill effects.

  • Environmental pollution:

    • Sustainable development. Radioactive wastes and disposal. Environmental impact assessment for thermal power plants, mines, river valley projects. Air pollution. Pollution control acts.    





UPSC Syllabus for Commerce & Accountancy Optional Subject.


Accounting and Finance, Taxation & Auditing 

  • Financial Accounting: 

    • Accounting as a Financial Information System; Impact of Behavioural Sciences. Accounting Standards e.g., Accounting for Depreciation, Inventories, Research and Development Costs, Long-term Construction Contracts, Revenue Recognition, Fixed Assets, Contingencies, Foreign Exchange Transactions, Investments and Government Grants, Cash Flow Statement, Earnings Per Share.

    • Accounting for Share Capital Transactions including Bonus Shares, Right Shares, Employees Stock Option and Buy- Back of Securities. Preparation and Presentation of Company Final Accounts. Amalgamation, Absorption and Reconstruction of Companies.

  • Cost Accounting:

    • Nature and Functions of Cost Accounting. Installation of Cost Accounting System. Cost Concepts related to Income Measurement, Profit Planning, Cost Control and Decision Making.

    • Methods of Costing: Job Costing, Process Costing, Activity Based Costing. Volume – cost – Profit Relationship as a tool of Profit Planning.

    • Incremental Analysis/ Differential Costing as a Tool of Pricing Decisions, Product Decisions, Make or Buy Decisions, Shut-Down Decisions etc.

    • Techniques of Cost Control and Cost Reduction: Budgeting as a Tool of Planning and Control. Standard Costing and Variance Analysis.Responsibility Accounting and Divisional Performance Measurement.


  • Taxation:

    • Income Tax: Definitions; Basis of Charge; Incomes which do not form Part of Total Income. Simple problems of Computation of Income (of Individuals only) under Various Heads, i.e., Salaries, Income from House Property, Profits and Gains from Business or Profession, Capital Gains, Income from other sources, Income of other Persons included in Assessee’s Total Income.

    • Set – Off and Carry Forward of Loss. Deductions from Gross Total Income. Salient Features/Provisions Related to VAT and Services Tax.


  • Auditing:

    • Company Audit: Audit related to Divisible Profits, Dividends, Special investigations, Tax audit. Audit of Banking, Insurance, Non-Profit Organizations and Charitable Societies/Trusts/Organizations.

Financial Management, Financial Institutions and Markets


  • Financial Management: 

    • Finance Function: Nature, Scope and Objectives of Financial Management: Risk and Return Relationship. Tools of Financial Analysis: Ratio Analysis, Funds-Flow and Cash-Flow Statement.

    • Capital Budgeting Decisions: Process, Procedures and Appraisal Methods. Risk and Uncertainty Analysis and Methods.

    • Cost of capital: Concept, Computation of Specific Costs and Weighted Average Cost of Capital. CAPM as a Tool of Determining Cost of Equity Capital.

    • Financing Decisions: Theories of Capital Structure – Net Income (NI) Approach, Net Operating Income (NOI) Approach, MM Approach and Traditional Approach. Designing of Capital structure: Types of Leverages (Operating, Financial and Combined), EBIT- EPS Analysis, and other Factors.

    • Dividend Decisions and Valuation of Firm: Walter’s Model, MM Thesis, Gordan’s Model Lintner’s Model. Factors Affecting Dividend Policy.

    • Working Capital Management: Planning of Working Capital. Determinants of Working Capital. Components of Working Capital Cash, Inventory and Receivables.

    • Corporate Restructuring with focus on Mergers and Acquisitions (Financial aspects only).


  • Financial Markets and Institutions:

    • Indian Financial System: An Overview Money Markets: Participants, Structure and Instruments. Commercial Banks. Reforms in Banking sector. Monetary and Credit Policy of RBI. RBI as a Regulator.

    • Capital Market: Primary and Secondary Market. Financial Market Instruments and Innovative Debt Instruments; SEBI as a Regulator.

    • Financial Services: Mutual Funds, Venture Capital, Credit Rating Agencies, Insurance and IRDA.



Organization Theory and Behaviour, Human Resource Management and Industrial Relations Organization Theory and Behaviour

  • Organization Theory:

    • Organization Theory: Classical, Neo-classical and Systems Approach.

    • Modern Concepts of Organization Theory: Organizational Design, Organizational Structure and Organizational Culture.

    • Organizational Nature and Concept of Organization; External Environment of Organizations -Technological, Social, Political, Economical and Legal; Organizational Goals – Primary and Secondary goals, Single and Multiple Goals; Management by Objectives.

    • Evolution of Design–Basic Challenges; Differentiation and Integration Process; Centralization and Decentralization Process; Standardization / Formalization and Mutual Adjustment. Coordinating Formal and Informal Organizations. Mechanistic and Organic Structures.

    • Designing Organizational structures–Authority and Control; Line and Staff Functions, Specialization and Coordination.

    • Types of Organization Structure –Functional. Matrix Structure, Project Structure. Nature and Basis of Power, Sources of Power, Power Structure and Politics. Impact of Information Technology on Organizational Design and Structure.

    • Managing Organizational Culture.


  • Organization Behaviour:

    • Meaning and Concept; Individual in organizations: Personality, Theories, and Determinants; Perception – Meaning and Process.

    • Motivation: Concepts, Theories and Applications. Leadership-Theories and Styles. Quality of Work Life (QWL): Meaning and its impact on Performance, Ways of its Enhancement. Quality Circles (QC) – Meaning and their Importance. Management of Conflicts in Organizations. Transactional Analysis, Organizational Effectiveness, Management of Change.

Human Resources Management and Industrial Relations

Human Resources Management (HRM) : 

  • Meaning, Nature and Scope of HRM, Human Resource Planning, Job Analysis, Job Description, Job Specification, Recruitment Process, Selection Process, Orientation and Placement, Training and Development Process, Performance Appraisal and 360° Feed Back, Salary and Wage Administration, Job Evaluation, Employee Welfare, Promotions, Transfers and Separations.

 Industrial Relations (IR): 

  • Meaning, Nature, Importance and Scope of IR, Formation of Trade Unions, Trade Union Legislation, Trade Union Movement in India. Recognition of Trade Unions, Problems of Trade Unions in India. Impact of Liberalization on Trade Union Movement.

  • Nature of Industrial Disputes : Strikes and Lockouts , Causes of Disputes, Prevention and Settlement of Disputes.

  • Worker’s Participation in Management: Philosophy, Rationale, Present Day Status and Future Prospects. Adjudication and Collective Bargaining.

  • Industrial Relations in Public Enterprises, Absenteeism and Labour Turnover in Indian Industries and their Causes and Remedies. ILO and its Functions.    

UPSC Syllabus for Economics Optional Subject.


Advanced Micro Economics:

  • Marshallian and Walrasiam Approaches to Price determination.

  • Alternative Distribution Theories: Ricardo, Kaldor, Kaleeki.

  • Markets Structure: Monopolistic Competition, Duopoly, Oligopoly.

  • Modern Welfare Criteria: Pareto Hicks & Scitovsky, Arrow’s Impossibility Theorem, A.K. Sen’s Social Welfare Function.


Advanced Macro Economics:

  • Approaches to Employment Income and Interest Rate determination: Classical, Keynes (IS-LM) curve, Neo classical synthesis and New classical, Theories of Interest Rate determination and Interest Rate Structure.

Money – Banking and Finance:

  • Demand for and Supply of Money: Money Multiplier Quantity Theory of Money (Fisher, Pique and Friedman) and Keyne’s Theory on Demand for Money, Goals and Instruments of Monetary Management in Closed and Open Economies. Relation between the Central Bank and the Treasury. Proposal for ceiling on growth rate of money.

  • Public Finance and its Role in Market Economy: In stabilization of supply, allocation of resources and in distribution and development. Sources of Govt. revenue, forms of Taxes and Subsidies, their incidence and effects. Limits to taxation, loans, crowding-out effects and limits to borrowings. Public Expenditure and its effects.


International Economics:

  • Old and New Theories of International Trade

    • Comparative Advantage 

    • Terms of Trade and Offer Curve.

    • Product Cycle and Strategic Trade Theories

    • Trade as an engine of growth and theories of under development in an open economy. 

  • Forms of Protection: Tariff and quota.

  • Balance of Payments Adjustments: Alternative Approaches. 

    • Price versus income, income adjustments under fixed exchange rates. 

    • Theories of Policy Mix. i) Exchange rate adjustments under capital mobility. \

    • Floating Rates and their Implications for Developing Countries: Currency Boards.

    • Trade Policy and Developing Countries. 

    • BOP, adjustments and Policy Coordination in open economy macro-model.              

    • Speculative attacks. 

    • Trade Blocks and Monetary Unions. 

    • WTO: TRIMS, TRIPS, Domestic Measures, Different Rounds of WTO talks.

Growth and Development:

  • Theories of growth:

    • Harrod’s model,

    • Lewis model of development with surplus labour, 

    •  Balanced and Unbalanced growth, 

    • Human Capital and Economic Growth. 

    • Research and Development and Economic Growth

  • Process of Economic Development of Less developed countries: Myrdal and Kuzments on economic development and structural change: Role of Agriculture in Economic Development of less developed countries.

  • Economic development and International Trade and Investment, Role of Multinationals.

  • Planning and Economic Development: changing role of Markets and Planning, Private- Public Partnership.

  • Welfare indicators and measures of growth – Human Development Indices. The basic needs approach.

  • Development and Environmental Sustainability – Renewable and Non Renewable Resources, Environmental Degradation, Intergenerational equity development.



  • Indian Economy in Pre-Independence Era:

    • Land System and its changes, Commercialization of agriculture, Drain theory, Laissez faire theory and critique. Manufacture and Transport: Jute, Cotton, Railways, Money and Credit.

  • Indian Economy after Independence:

    •  The Pre Liberalization Era:

      • Contribution of Vakil, Gadgil and V.K.R.V. Rao. 

      •  Agriculture: Land Reforms and land tenure system, Green Revolution and capital formation in agriculture. 

      • Industry Trends in composition and growth, Role of public and private sector, Small scale and cottage industries. 

      • National and Per capita income: patterns, trends, aggregate and Sectoral composition and changes their in. 

      • Broad factors determining National Income and distribution, Measures of poverty, Trends in poverty and inequality.

    • The Post Liberalization Era: 

      • New Economic Reform and Agriculture: Agriculture and WTO, Food processing, Subsidies, Agricultural prices and public distribution system, Impact of public expenditure on agricultural growth. 

      • New Economic Policy and Industry: Strategy of industrialization, Privatization, Disinvestments, Role of foreign direct investment and multinationals. 

      • New Economic Policy and Trade: Intellectual property rights: Implications of TRIPS, TRIMS, GATS and new EXIM policy. 

      • New Exchange Rate Regime: Partial and full convertibility, Capital account convertibility. 

      • New Economic Policy and Public Finance: Fiscal Responsibility Act, Twelfth Finance Commission and Fiscal Federalism and Fiscal Consolidation. 

      • New Economic Policy and Monetary system. Role of RBI under the new regime. 

      • Planning: From central Planning to indicative planning, Relation between planning and markets for growth and decentralized planning: 73rd and 74th Constitutional amendments. 

      • New Economic Policy and Employment: Employment and poverty, Rural wages, Employment Generation, Poverty alleviation schemes, New Rural, Employment Guarantee Scheme. 


UPSC Syllabus for Electrical Engineering Optional Subject.



Circuit Theory:

  • Circuit components; network graphs; KCL, KVL; circuit analysis methods: nodal analysis, mesh analysis; basic network theorems and applications; transient analysis: RL, RC and RLC circuits; sinusoidal steady state analysis; resonant circuits; coupled circuits; balanced 3-phase circuits; Two-port networks.


Signals & Systems:

  • Representation of continuous–time and discrete-time signals & systems; LTI systems; convolution; impulse response; time-domain analysis of LTI systems based on convolution and differential/difference equations. Fourier transform, Laplace transform, Z-transform, Transfer function. Sampling and recovery of signals DFT, FFT Processing of analog signals through discrete-time systems.


E.M. Theory:

  • Maxwell’s equations, wave propagation in bounded media. Boundary conditions, reflection and refraction of plane waves. Transmission line: travelling and standing waves, impedance matching, Smith chart.


Analog Electronics:

  • Characteristics and equivalent circuits (large and small-signal) of Diode, BJT, JFET and MOSFET. Diode circuits: clipping, clamping, rectifier. Biasing and bias stability. FET amplifiers. Current mirror; Amplifiers: single and multi-stage, differential, operational, feedback and power. Analysis of amplifiers; frequency-response of amplifiers. OPAMP circuits. Filters; sinusoidal oscillators: criterion for oscillation; single-transistor and OPAMP configurations. Function generators and wave-shaping circuits. Linear and switching power supplies.


Digital Electronics:

  • Boolean algebra; minimization of Boolean functions; logic gates; digital IC families (DTL, TTL, ECL, MOS, CMOS). Combinational circuits: arithmetic circuits, code converters, multiplexers and decoders. Sequential circuits: latches and flip-flops, counters and shift-registers. Comparators, timers, multi-vibrators. Sample and hold circuits, ADCs and DACs. Semiconductor memories. Logic implementation using programmable devices (ROM, PLA, FPGA).


Energy Conversion:

  • Principles of electromechanical energy conversion: Torque and emf in rotating machines. DC machines: characteristics and performance analysis; starting and speed control of motors; Transformers: principles of operation and analysis; regulation, efficiency; 3-phase transformers. 3-phase induction machines and synchronous machines: characteristics and performance analysis; speed control.


Power Electronics and Electric Drives:

  • Semiconductor power devices: diode, transistor, thyristor, triac, GTO and MOSFET–static characteristics and principles of operation; triggering circuits; phase control rectifiers; bridge converters: fully-controlled and half-controlled; principles of thyristor choppers and inverters; DC-DC converters; Switch mode inverter; basic concepts of speed control of DC and AC Motor drives applications of variable-speed drives.


Analog Communication:

  • Random variables: continuous, discrete; probability, probability functions. Statistical averages; probability models; Random signals and noise: white noise, noise equivalent bandwidth; signal transmission with noise; signal to noise ratio. Linear CW modulation: Amplitude modulation: DSB, DSB-SC and SSB. Modulators and Demodulators; Phase and Frequency modulation: PM & FM signals; narrowband FM; generation & detection of FM and PM, Deemphasis, Preemphasis. CW modulation system: Superhetrodyne receivers, AM receivers, communication receivers, FM receivers, phase locked loop, SSB receiver Signal to noise ratio calculation for AM and FM receivers.



Control Systems:

  • Elements of control systems; block-diagram representation; open-loop & closed-loop systems; principles and applications of feed-back. Control system components. LTI systems: time-domain and transform-domain analysis. Stability: Routh Hurwitz criterion, root-loci, Bodeplots and polar plots, Nyquist’s criterion; Design of lead-lad compensators. Proportional, PI, PID controllers. State-variable representation and analysis of control systems.


Microprocessors and Microcomputers:

  • PC organization; CPU, instruction set, register set, timing diagram, programming, interrupts, memory interfacing, I/O interfacing, programmable peripheral devices.


Measurement and Instrumentation:

  • Error analysis; measurement of current, voltage, power, energy, power-factor, resistance, inductance, capacitance and frequency; bridge measurement. Signal conditioning circuit; Electronic measuring instruments: multimeter, CRO, digital voltmeter, frequency counter, Q-meter, spectrum- analyzer, distortion-meter. Transducers: thermocouple, thermistor, LVDT, strain-gauge, piezo-electric crystal.


Power Systems: Analysis and Control:

  • Steady-state performance of overhead transmission lines and cables; principles of active and reactive power transfer and distribution; per-unit quantities; bus admittance and impedance matrices; load flow; voltage control and power factor correction; economic operation; symmetrical components, analysis of symmetrical and unsymmetrical faults. Concept of system stability: swing curves and equal area criterion. Static VAR system. Basic concepts of HVDC transmission.


Power System Protection:

  • Principles of over current, differential and distance protection. Concept of solid state relays. Circuit breakers. Computer-aided protection: Introduction; line bus, generator, transformer protection; numeric relays and application of DSP to protection.


Digital Communication:

  • Pulse code modulation (PCM), differential pulse code modulation (DPCM), delta modulation (DM), Digital modulation and demodulation schemes: amplitude, phase and frequency keying schemes (ASK, PSK, FSK). Error control coding: error detection and correction, linear block codes, convolution codes. Information measure and source coding. Data networks, 7-layer architecture.    

IAS Philosophy Syllabus

UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam consists of Philosophy as one of the Optional Subjects with 2 papers (paper I and paper II). Each paper is of 250 marks with a total of 500 marks.


  • History and Problems of Philosophy: Plato and Aristotle: Ideas; Substance; Form and Matter; Causation; Actuality and Potentiality. Rationalism (Descartes, Spinoza, Leibniz): Cartesian Method and Certain Knowledge; Substance; God; Mind-Body Dualism; Determinism and Freedom. Empiricism (Locke, Berkeley, Hume): Theory of Knowledge; Substance and Qualities; Self and God; Scepticism. Kant: Possibility of Synthetic a priori Judgments; Space and Time; Categories; Ideas of Reason; Antinomies; Critique of Proofs for the Existence of God Hegel: Dialectical Method; Absolute Idealism Moore, Russell and Early Wittgenstein: Defence of Commonsense; Refutation of Idealism; Logical Atomism; Logical Constructions; Incomplete Symbols; Picture Theory of Meaning; Saying and Showing. Logical Positivism: Verification Theory of Meaning; Rejection of Metaphysics; Linguistic Theory of Necessary Propositions. Later Wittgenstein: Meaning and Use; Language-games; Critique of Private Language. Phenomenology (Husserl): Method; Theory of Essences; Avoidance of Psychologism. Existentialism (Kierkegaard, Sartre, Heidegger): Existence and Essence; Choice, Responsibility and Authentic Existence; Being-in-the –world and Temporality. Quine and Strawson: Critique of Empiricism; Theory of Basic Particulars and Persons. Cârvâka : Theory of Knowledge; Rejection of Transcendent Entities. Jainism: Theory of Reality; Saptabhaòginaya; Bondage and Liberation. Schools of Buddhism: Pratîtyasamutpâda; Ksanikavada, Nairâtmyavâda. Nyâya- Vaiúesika: Theory of Categories; Theory of Appearance; Theory of Pramâna; Self, Liberation; God; Proofs for the Existence of God; Theory of Causation; Atomistic Theory of Creation. Sâmkhya: Prakrti; Purusa; Causation; Liberation. Yoga: Citta; Cittavrtti; Klesas; Samadhi; Kaivalya. Mimâmsâ: Theory of Knowledge. Schools of Vedânta: Brahman; Îúvara; Âtman; Jiva; Jagat; Mâyâ; Avidyâ; Adhyâsa; Moksa; Aprthaksiddhi; Pancavidhabheda Aurobindo: Evolution, Involution; Integral Yoga.


  • Socio-Political Philosophy: Social and Political Ideals: Equality, Justice, Liberty. Sovereignty: Austin, Bodin, Laski, Kautilya. Individual and State: Rights; Duties and Accountability. Forms of Government: Monarchy; Theocracy and Democracy. Political Ideologies: Anarchism; Marxism and Socialism. Humanism; Secularism; Multiculturalism. Crime and Punishment: Corruption, Mass Violence, Genocide, Capital Punishment. Development and Social Progress. Gender Discrimination: Female Foeticide, Land and Property Rights; Empowerment.

  • Philosophy of Religion: Notions of God: Attributes; Relation to Man and the World. (Indian and Western). Proofs for the Existence of God and their Critique (Indian and Western). Problem of Evil. Soul: Immortality; Rebirth and Liberation. Reason, Revelation and Faith. Religious Experience: Nature and Object (Indian and Western). Religion without God. Religion and Morality. Religious Pluralism and the Problem of Absolute Truth. Nature of Religious Language: Analogical and Symbolic; Cognitive and No cognitive.    

Caste Discrimination: Gandhi and Ambedkar

  • Philosophy of Religion: Notions of God: Attributes; Relation to Man and the World. (Indian and Western). Proofs for the Existence of God and their Critique (Indian and Western). Problem of Evil. Soul: Immortality; Rebirth and Liberation. Reason, Revelation and Faith. Religious Experience: Nature and Object (Indian and Western). Religion without God. Religion and Morality. Religious Pluralism and the Problem of Absolute Truth. Nature of Religious Language: Analogical and Symbolic; Cognitivist and Noncognitive.    





IAS Political Science and International Relations Syllabus


UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam consists of Political Science and International Relations as one of the Optional Subjects with 2 papers (paper I and paper II). Each paper is of 250 marks with a total of 500 marks. Read on for the syllabus of political science optional for UPSC mains exam.


  • Political Theory and Indian Politics:

    • Political Theory: meaning and approaches.

    • Theories of the State: Liberal, Neoliberal, Marxist, Pluralist, Post-colonial and feminist.

    • Justice: Conceptions of justice with special reference to Rawl’s theory of justice and its communitarian critiques.

    • Equality: Social, political and economic; relationship between equality and freedom; Affirmative action.

    • Rights: Meaning and theories; different kinds of rights; concept of Human Rights.

    • Democracy: Classical and contemporary theories; different models of democracy – representative, participatory and deliberative.

    • Concept of power, hegemony, ideology and legitimacy.

    • Political Ideologies: Liberalism, Socialism, Marxism, Fascism, Gandhism and Feminism.

    • Indian Political Thought : Dharamshastra, Arthashastra and Buddhist traditions; Sir Syed Ahmed Khan, Sri Aurobindo, M.K. Gandhi, B.R. Ambedkar, M.N. Roy.

    • Western Political Thought: Plato, Aristotle, Machiavelli, Hobbes, Locke, John S. Mill, Marx, Gramsci, Hannah Arendt. Indian Government and Politics.


  • Indian Nationalism:

    • Political Strategies of India’s Freedom Struggle: Constitutionalism to mass Satyagraha, Non-cooperation, Civil Disobedience; Militant and revolutionary movements, Peasant and workers’ movements.

    • Perspectives on Indian National Movement: Liberal, Socialist and Marxist; Radical humanist and Dalit.

  • Making of the Indian Constitution: Legacies of the British rule; different social and political perspectives.

  • Salient Features of the Indian Constitution: The Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Duties, Directive Principles; Parliamentary System and Amendment Procedures; Judicial Review and Basic Structure doctrine.

  • (a) Principal Organs of the Union Government: Envisaged role and actual working of the Executive, Legislature and Supreme Court. (b)Principal Organs of the State Government: Envisaged role and actual working of the Executive, Legislature and High Courts.

  • Grassroots Democracy: Panchayati Raj and Municipal Government; significance of 73rd and 74th Amendments; Grassroots movements.

  • Statutory Institutions/Commissions: Election Commission, Comptroller and Auditor General, Finance Commission, Union Public Service Commission, National Commission for Scheduled Castes, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, National Commission for Women; National Human Rights Commission, National Commission for Minorities, National Backward Classes Commission.

  • Federalism: Constitutional provisions; changing nature of centre-state relations; integrationist tendencies and regional aspirations; inter-state disputes.

  • Planning and Economic Development : Nehruvian and Gandhian perspectives; role of planning and public sector; Green Revolution, land reforms and agrarian relations; liberalization and economic reforms.

  • Caste, Religion and Ethnicity in Indian Politics.

  • Party System: National and regional political parties, ideological and social bases of parties; patterns of coalition politics; Pressure groups, trends in electoral behaviour; changing socio- economic profile of Legislators.

  • Social Movements: Civil liberties and human rights movements; women’s movements; environmentalist movements.


Comparative Politics and International Relations Comparative Political Analysis and International Politics:

  • Comparative Politics: Nature and major approaches; political economy and political sociology perspectives; limitations of the comparative method.

  • State in comparative perspective: Characteristics and changing nature of the State in capitalist and socialist economies, and, advanced industrial and developing societies.

  • Politics of Representation and Participation: Political parties, pressure groups and social movements in advanced industrial and developing societies.

  • Globalisation: Responses from developed and developing societies.

  • Approaches to the Study of International Relations: Idealist, Realist, Marxist, Functionalist and Systems theory.

  • Key concepts in International Relations: National interest, Security and power; Balance of power and deterrence; Transnational actors and collective security; World capitalist economy and globalisation.

  • Changing International Political Order:

    • Rise of super powers; strategic and ideological Bipolarity, arms race and Cold War; nuclear threat;

    • Non-aligned movement: Aims and achievements;

    • Collapse of the Soviet Union; Unipolarity and American hegemony; relevance of non-alignment in the contemporary world.

  • Evolution of the International Economic System: From Brettonwoods to WTO; Socialist economies and the CMEA (Council for Mutual Economic Assistance); Third World demand for new international economic order; Globalization of the world economy.

  • United Nations: Envisaged role and actual record; specialized UN agencies-aims and functioning; need for UN reforms.

  • Regionalization of World Politics: EU, ASEAN, APEC, SAARC, NAFTA.

  • Contemporary Global Concerns: Democracy, human rights, environment, gender justice, terrorism, nuclear proliferation.

India and the World:

  • Indian Foreign Policy: Determinants of foreign policy; institutions of policy-making; continuity and change.

  • India’s Contribution to the Non-Alignment Movement: Different phases; current role.

  • India and South Asia:

    • Regional Co-operation: SAARC – past performance and future prospects.

    • South Asia as a Free Trade Area.

    • India’s “Look East” policy.

    • Impediments to regional co-operation: river water disputes; illegal cross-border migration; ethnic conflicts and insurgencies; border disputes.

  • India and the Global South: Relations with Africa and Latin America; leadership role in the demand for NIEO and WTO negotiations.

  • India and the Global Centres of Power: USA, EU, Japan, China and Russia.

  • India and the UN System: Role in UN Peace keeping; demand for Permanent Seat in the Security Council.

  • India and the Nuclear Question: Changing perceptions and policy.

  • Recent developments in Indian Foreign policy: India’s position on the recent crisis in Afghanistan, Iraq and West Asia, growing relations with US and Israel; vision of a new world order.


IAS Psychology Syllabus


Foundations of Psychology


  • Definition of Psychology; Historical antecedents of Psychology and trends in the 21st century; Psychology and scientific methods; Psychology in relation to other social sciences and natural sciences; Application of Psychology to societal problems.

Methods of Psychology:

  • Types of research: Descriptive, evaluative, diagnostic and prognostic; Methods of Research: Survey, observation, case-study and experiments; Characteristics of experimental design and non- experimental design, Quasi-experimental designs; Focussed group discussions, brain storming, grounded theory approach.

Research Methods:

  • Major steps in Psychological research (problem statement, hypothesis formulation, research designs, sampling, tools of data collection, analysis and interpretation and report writing) Fundamental versus applied research; Methods of data collection (interview, observation, questionnaire); Research designs (ex-post facto and experimental); Application of statistical technique (t – test, two way ANOVA correlation, regression and factor analysis); Item response theory.

Development of Human Behaviour:

  • Growth and development; Principles of development, Role of genetic and environmental factors in determining human behaviour; Influence of cultural factors in socialization; Life span development Characteristics, development tasks, promoting psychological well-being across major stages of the life span.

Sensation, Attention and Perception:

  • Sensation: concepts of threshold, absolute and difference thresholds, signal-detection and vigilance; Factors influencing attention including set and characteristics of stimulus; Definition and concept of perception, biological factors in perception; Perceptual organization-influence of past experiences, perceptual defence-factors influencing space and depth perception, size estimation and perceptual readiness; The plasticity of perception; Extrasensory perception; Culture and perception, Subliminal perception.


  • Concept and theories of learning (Behaviourists, Gestaltalist and Information processing models); The Processes of extinction, discrimination and generalization; Programmed learning, probability learning, self- instructional learning, concepts; Types and the schedules of reinforcement, escape, avoidance and punishment, modeling and social learning.


  • Encoding and remembering; Short term memory, Long term memory, Sensory memory, Iconic memory, Echoic memory: The Multistore model, levels of processing; Organization and Mnemonic techniques to improve memory; Theories of forgetting: decay, interference and retrieval failure: Metamemory; Amnesia: Anterograde and retrograde.

Thinking and Problem Solving:

  • Piaget’s theory of cognitive development; Concept formation processes; Information processing, Reasoning and problem solving, Facilitating and hindering factors in problem solving, Methods of problem solving: Creative thinking and fostering creativity; Factors influencing decision making and judgment; Recent trends.

Motivation and Emotion:

  • Psychological and physiological basis of motivation and emotion; Measurement of motivation and emotion; Effects of motivation and emotion on behaviour; Extrinsic and intrinsic motivation; Factors influencing intrinsic motivation; Emotional competence and the related issues.

Intelligence and Aptitude:

  • Concept of intelligence and aptitude, Nature and theories of intelligence Spearman, Thurstone, Gullford Vernon, Sternberg and J.P; Das; Emotional Intelligence, Social intelligence, measurement of intelligence and aptitudes, concept of IQ, deviation IQ, constancy of IQ; Measurement of multiple intelligence; Fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence.


  • Definition and concept of personality; Theories of personality (psychoanalytical, sociocultural, interpersonal, developmental, humanistic, behaviouristic, trait and type approaches); Measurement of personality (projective tests, pencil-paper test); The Indian approach to personality; Training for personality development; Latest approaches like big 5 factor theory; The notion of self in different traditions.

Attitudes, Values and Interests:

  • Definition of attitudes, values and interests; Components of attitudes; Formation and maintenance of attitudes; Measurement of attitudes, values and interests; Theories of attitude change; Strategies for fostering values; Formation of stereotypes and prejudices; Changing others behaviour; Theories of attribution; Recent trends.

Language and Communication:

  • Human language – Properties, structure and linguistic hierarchy, Language acquisition-predisposition, critical period hypothesis; Theories of language development Skinner and Chomsky; Process and types of communication – effective communication training.

Issues and Perspectives in Modern Contemporary Psychology:

  • Computer application in the psychological laboratory and psychological testing; Artificial intelligence; Psycho cybernetics; Study of consciousness-sleep-wake schedules; dreams, stimulus deprivation, meditation, hypnotic/drug induced states; Extrasensory perception; Intercessory perception Simulation studies.


Psychology: Issues and Applications

Psychological Measurement of Individual Differences:

  • The nature of individual differences; Characteristics and construction of standardized psychological tests; Types of psychological tests; Use, misuse and limitation of psychological tests; hical issues in the use of psychological tests.

Psychological well being and Mental Disorders:

  • Concept of health-ill health; Positive health, well being; Causal factors in mental disorders (Anxiety disorders, mood disorders, schizophrenia and delusional disorders; personality disorders, substance abuse disorders); Factors influencing positive health, well being, life style and quality of life; Happiness disposition.

Therapeutic Approaches:

  • Psychodynamic therapies; Behaviour therapies; Client centered therapy; Cognitive therapies; Indigenous therapies (Yoga, Meditation); Bio-feedback therapy; Prevention and rehabilitation of the mentally ill; Fostering mental health.

Work Psychology and Organizational Behaviour:

  • Personnel selection and training; Use of psychological tests in the industry; Training and human resource development; Theories of work motivation – Herzberg, Maslow, Adam Equity theory, Porter and Lawler, Vroom; Leadership and participatory management; Advertising and marketing; Stress and its management; Ergonomics; consumer psychology; Managerial effectiveness; Transformational leadership; Sensitivity training; Power and politics in organizations.

Application of Psychology to Educational Field:

  • Psychological principles underlying effective teaching-learning process; Learning styles; Gifted, retarded, learning disabled and their training; Training for improving memory and better academic achievement; Personality development and value education, Educational, vocational guidance and career counseling; Use of psychological tests in educational institutions; Effective strategies in guidance programmes.

Community Psychology:

  • Definition and concept of community psychology; Use of small groups in social action; Arousing community consciousness and action for handling social problems; Group decision making and leadership for social change; Effective strategies for social change.

Rehabilitation Psychology:

  • Primary, secondary and tertiary prevention programmes-role of psychologists; Organising of services for rehabilitation of physically, mentally and socially challenged persons including old persons, Rehabilitation of persons suffering from substance abuse, juvenile delinquency, criminal behaviour; Rehabilitation of victims of violence, Rehabilitation of HIV/AIDS victims, the role of social agencies.

Application of Psychology to disadvantaged groups:

  • The concepts of disadvantaged, deprivation; Social, physical, cultural and economic consequences of disadvantaged and deprived groups; Educating and motivating the disadvantaged towards development; Relative and prolonged deprivation.

Psychological problems of social integration:

  • The concept of social integration; The problem of caste, class, religion and language conflicts and prejudice; Nature and manifestation of prejudice between the in-group and out-group; Causal factors of social conflicts and prejudices; Psychological strategies for handling the conflicts and prejudices; Measures to achieve social integration.

Application of Psychology in Information Technology and Mass Media:

  • The present scenario of information technology and the mass media boom and the role of psychologists; Selection and training of psychology professionals to work in the field of IT and mass media; Distance learning through IT and mass media; Entrepreneurship through e-commerce; Multilevel marketing; Impact of TV and fostering value through IT and mass media; Psychological consequences of recent developments in Information Technology.

Psychology and Economic development:

  • Achievement motivation and economic development; Characteristics of entrepreneurial behaviour; Motivating and training people for entrepreneurship and economic development; Consumer rights and consumer awareness, Government policies for promotion of entrepreneurship among youth including women entrepreneurs.

Application of psychology to environment and related fields:

  • Environmental psychology- effects of noise, pollution and crowding; Population psychology: psychological consequences of population explosion and high population density; Motivating for small family norm; Impact of rapid scientific and technological growth on degradation of environment.

Application of psychology in other fields:

  • Military Psychology Devising psychological tests for defence personnel for use in selection, Training, counseling; training psychologists to work with defence personnel in promoting positive health; Human engineering in defence.

  • Sports Psychology Psychological interventions in improving performance of athletes and sports. Persons participating in Individual and Team Games.

  •  Media influences on pro and antisocial behaviour.

  • Psychology of terrorism.

Psychology of Gender:

  • Issues of discrimination, Management of diversity; Glass ceiling effect, Self fulfilling prophesy, Women and Indian society.    



IAS Public Administration Syllabus

UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam consists of Public Administration as one of the Optional Subjects with 2 papers (paper I and paper II). Each paper is of 250 marks with a total of 500 marks.

PAPER – I Administrative Theory


  • Meaning, scope and significance of Public Administration; Wilson’s vision of Public Administration; Evolution of the discipline and its present status; New Public Administration; Public Choice approach; Challenges of liberalization, Privatisation, Globalisation; Good Governance: concept and application; New Public Management.

Administrative Thought:

  • Scientific Management and Scientific Management movement; Classical Theory; Weber’s bureaucratic model – its critique and post-Weberian Developments; Dynamic Administration (Mary Parker Follett); Human Relations School (Elton Mayo and others); Functions of the Executive (C.I. Barnard); Simon’s decision-making theory; Participative Management (R. Likert, C. Argyris, D. McGregor).

Administrative Behaviour:


  • Process and techniques of decision-making; Communication; Morale; Motivation Theories – content, process and contemporary; Theories of Leadership: Traditional and Modern.


  • Theories – systems, contingency; Structure and forms: Ministries and Departments, Corporations, Companies, Boards and Commissions; Ad hoc and advisory bodies; Headquarters and Field relationships; Regulatory Authorities; Public – Private Partnerships.

Accountability and control:

  • Concepts of accountability and control; Legislative, Executive and Judicial control over administration; Citizen and Administration; Role of media, interest groups, voluntary organizations; Civil society; Citizen’s Charters; Right to Information; Social audit.

Administrative Law:

  • Meaning, scope and significance; Dicey on Administrative law; Delegated legislation; Administrative Tribunals.

Comparative Public Administration:

  • Historical and sociological factors affecting administrative systems; Administration and politics in different countries; Current status of Comparative Public Administration; Ecology and administration; Riggsian models and their critique.

Development Dynamics:

  • Concept of development; Changing profile of development administration; ‘Antidevelopment thesis’; Bureaucracy and development; Strong state versus the market debate; Impact of liberalisation on administration in developing countries; Women and development – the self-help group movement.

Personnel Administration:

  • Importance of human resource development; Recruitment, training, career advancement, position classification, discipline, performance appraisal, promotion, pay and service conditions; employer-employee relations, grievance redressal mechanism; Code of conduct; Administrative ethics.

Public Policy:

  • Models of policy-making and their critique; Processes of conceptualisation, planning, implementation, monitoring, evaluation and review and their limitations; State theories and public policy formulation.

Techniques of Administrative Improvement:

  • Organisation and methods, Work study and work management; e-governance and information technology; Management aid tools like network analysis, MIS, PERT, CPM.

Financial Administration:

  • Monetary and fiscal policies; Public borrowings and public debt Budgets – types and forms; Budgetary process; Financial accountability; Accounts and audit.

PAPER – II Indian Administration

Evolution of Indian Administration:

  • Kautilya’s Arthashastra; Mughal administration; Legacy of British rule in politics and administration – Indianization of public services, revenue administration, district administration, local self-government.

Philosophical and Constitutional framework of government:

  • Salient features and value premises; Constitutionalism; Political culture; Bureaucracy and democracy; Bureaucracy and development.

Public Sector Undertakings:

  • Public sector in modern India; Forms of Public Sector Undertakings; Problems of autonomy, accountability and control; Impact of liberalization and privatization.

Union Government and Administration:

  • Executive, Parliament, Judiciary – structure, functions, work processes; Recent trends; Intragovernmental relations; Cabinet Secretariat; Prime Minister’s Office; Central Secretariat; Ministries and Departments; Boards; Commissions; Attached offices; Field organizations.

Plans and Priorities:

  • Machinery of planning; Role, composition and functions of the Planning Commission and the National Development Council; ‘Indicative’ planning; Process of plan formulation at Union and State levels; Constitutional Amendments (1992) and decentralized planning for economic development and social justice.

State Government and Administration:

  • Union-State administrative, legislative and financial relations; Role of the Finance Commission; Governor; Chief Minister; Council of Ministers; Chief Secretary; State Secretariat; Directorates.

District Administration since Independence:

  • Changing role of the Collector; Unionstate-local relations; Imperatives of development management and law and order administration; District administration and democratic decentralization.

Civil Services:

  • Constitutional position; Structure, recruitment, training and capacity-building; Good governance initiatives; Code of conduct and discipline; Staff associations; Political rights; Grievance redressal mechanism; Civil service neutrality; Civil service activism.

Financial Management:

  • Budget as a political instrument; Parliamentary control of public expenditure; Role of finance ministry in monetary and fiscal area; Accounting techniques; Audit; Role of Controller General of Accounts and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Administrative Reforms since Independence:

  • Major concerns; Important Committees and Commissions; Reforms in financial management and human resource development; Problems of implementation.

Rural Development:

  • Institutions and agencies since independence; Rural development programmes: foci and strategies; Decentralization and Panchayati Raj; 73rd Constitutional amendment.

Urban Local Government:

  • Municipal governance: main features, structures, finance and problem areas; 74th Constitutional Amendment; Globallocal debate; New localism; Development dynamics, politics and administration with special reference to city management.

Law and Order Administration:

  • British legacy; National Police Commission; Investigative agencies; Role of central and state agencies including paramilitary forces in maintenance of law and order and countering insurgency and terrorism; Criminalisation of politics and administration; Police-public relations; Reforms in Police.

Significant issues in Indian Administration:

  • Values in public service; Regulatory Commissions; National Human Rights Commission; Problems of administration in coalition regimes; Citizen-administration interface; Corruption and administration; Disaster management.    

IAS Physics Syllabus


Mechanics of Particles:

  • Laws of motion; conservation of energy and momentum, applications to rotating frames, centripetal and Coriolis accelerations; Motion under a central force; Conservation of angular momentum, Kepler’s laws; Fields and potentials; Gravitational field and potential due to spherical bodies, Gauss and Poisson equations, gravitational self-energy; Two-body problem; Reduced mass; Rutherford scattering; Centre of mass and laboratory reference frames. 

  • Mechanics of Rigid Bodies: System of particles; Centre of mass, angular momentum, equations of motion; Conservation theorems for energy, momentum and angular momentum; Elastic and inelastic collisions; Rigid body; Degrees of freedom, Euler’s theorem, angular velocity, angular momentum, moments of inertia, theorems of parallel and perpendicular axes, equation of motion for rotation; Molecular rotations (as rigid bodies); Di and tri-atomic molecules; Precessional motion; top, gyroscope.

  • Mechanics of Continuous Media:Elasticity, Hooke’s law and elastic constants of isotropic solids and their inter-relation; Streamline (Laminar) flow, viscosity, Poiseuille’s equation, Bernoulli’s equation, Stokes’ law and applications.

  • Special Relativity:Michelson- Morley experiment and its implications; Lorentz transformations- length contraction, time dilation, addition of relativistic velocities, aberration and Doppler effect, mass-energy relation, simple applications to a decay process; Four dimensional momentum vector; Covariance of equations of physics.

Waves and Optics:

  • Waves: Simple harmonic motion, damped oscillation, forced oscillation and resonance; Beats; Stationary waves in a string; Pulses and wave packets; Phase and group velocities; Reflection and Refraction from Huygens’ principle.

  • Geometrical Optics: Laws of reflection and refraction from Fermat’s principle; Matrix method in paraxial optics-thin lens formula, nodal planes, system of two thin lenses, chromatic and spherical aberrations. 

  • Interference: Interference of light-Young’s experiment, Newton’s rings, interference by thin films, Michelson interferometer; Multiple beam interference and Fabry-Perot interferometer. 

  • Diffraction: Fraunhofer diffraction-single slit, double slit, diffraction grating, resolving power; Diffraction by a circular aperture and the Airy pattern; Fresnel diffraction: half-period zones and zone plates, circular aperture. 

  • Polarization and Modern Optics: Production and detection of linearly and circularly polarized light; Double refraction, quarter wave plate; Optical activity; Principles of fibre optics, attenuation; Pulse dispersion in step index and parabolic index fibres; Material dispersion, single mode fibres; Lasers-Einstein A and B coefficients; Ruby and He-Ne lasers; Characteristics of laser light-spatial and temporal coherence; Focusing of laser beams; Three-level scheme for laser operation; Holography and simple applications.

Electricity and Magnetism:

       Electrostatics and Magneto statics: 

  • Laplace and Poisson equations in electrostatics and their applications; Energy of a system of charges, multipole expansion of scalar potential; Method of images and its applications; Potential and field due to a dipole, force and torque on a dipole in an external field; Dielectrics, polarization; Solutions to boundary-value problems- conducting and dielectric spheres in a uniform electric field; Magnetic shell, uniformly magnetized sphere; Ferromagnetic materials, hysteresis, energy loss. 

  • Current Electricity:Kirchhoff’s laws and their applications; Biot-Savart law, Ampere’s law, Faraday’s law, Lenz’ law; Self-and mutual-inductances; Mean and r m s values in AC circuits; DC and AC circuits with R, L and C components; Series and parallel resonances; Quality factor; Principle of transformer.

Electromagnetic Waves and Blackbody Radiation:

  • Displacement current and Maxwell’s equations; Wave equations in vacuum, Poynting theorem; Vector and scalar potentials; Electromagnetic field tensor, covariance of Maxwell’s equations; Wave equations in isotropic dielectrics, reflection and refraction at the boundary of two dielectrics; Fresnel’s relations; Total internal reflection; Normal and anomalous dispersion; Rayleigh scattering; Blackbody radiation and Planck’s radiation law, StefanBoltzmann law, Wien’s displacement law and Rayleigh-Jeans’ law.

Thermal and Statistical Physics:


  • Laws of thermodynamics, reversible and irreversible processes, entropy; Isothermal, adiabatic, isobaric, isochoric processes and entropy changes; Otto and Diesel engines, Gibbs’ phase rule and chemical potential; van der Waals equation of state of a real gas, critical constants; Maxwell-Boltzman distribution of molecular velocities, transport phenomena, equipartition and virial theorems; Dulong-Petit, Einstein, and Debye’s theories of specific heat of solids; Maxwell relations and applications; Clausius- Clapeyron equation; Adiabatic demagnetisation, Joule-Kelvin effect and liquefaction of gases. 

  • Statistical Physics:Macro and micro states, statistical distributions, Maxwell-Boltzmann, Bose-Einstein and Fermi-Dirac distributions, applications to specific heat of gases and blackbody radiation; Concept of negative temperatures.


Quantum Mechanics:

  • Wave-particle dualitiy; Schroedinger equation and expectation values; Uncertainty principle; Solutions of the one-dimensional Schroedinger equation for a free particle (Gaussian wave-packet), particle in a box, particle in a finite well, linear harmonic oscillator; Reflection and transmission by a step potential and by a rectangular barrier; Particle in a three dimensional box, density of states, free electron theory of metals; Angular momentum; Hydrogen atom; Spin half particles, properties of Pauli spin matrices.

Atomic and Molecular Physics:

  • Stern-Gerlach experiment, electron spin, fine structure of hydrogen atom; L-S coupling, J- J coupling; Spectroscopic notation of atomic states; Zeeman effect; FrankCondon principle and applications; Elementary theory of rotational, vibratonal and electronic spectra of diatomic molecules; Raman effect and molecular structure; Laser Raman spectroscopy; Importance of neutral hydrogen atom, molecular hydrogen and molecular hydrogen ion in astronomy; Fluorescence and Phosphorescence; Elementary theory and applications of NMR and EPR; Elementary ideas about Lamb shift and its significance.

Nuclear and Particle Physics:

  • Basic nuclear properties-size, binding energy, angular momentum, parity, magnetic moment; Semi-empirical mass formula and applications, mass parabolas; Ground state of deuteron, magnetic moment and non-central forces; Meson theory of nuclear forces; Salient features of nuclear forces; Shell model of the nucleus – successes and limitations; Violation of parity in beta decay; Gamma decay and internal conversion; Elementary ideas about Mossbauer spectroscopy; Q-value of nuclear reactions; Nuclear fission and fusion, energy production in stars; Nuclear reactors. Classification of elementary particles and their interactions; Conservation laws; Quark structure of hadrons; Field quanta of electroweak and strong interactions; Elementary ideas about unification of forces; Physics of neutrinos.

Solid State Physics, Devices and Electronics:

  • Crystalline and amorphous structure of matter; Different crystal systems, space groups; Methods of determination of crystal structure; X-ray diffraction, scanning and transmission electron microscopies; Band theory of solids – conductors, insulators and semiconductors; Thermal properties of solids, specific heat, Debye theory; Magnetism: dia, para and ferromagnetism; Elements of superconductivity, Meissner effect, Josephson junctions and applications; Elementary ideas about high temperature superconductivity. Intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors; p-n-p and n-p-n transistors; Amplifiers and oscillators; Op-amps; FET, JFET and MOSFET; Digital electronics-Boolean identities, De Morgan’s laws, logic gates and truth tables; Simple logic circuits; Thermistors, solar cells; Fundamentals of microprocessors and digital computers.    

IAS Sociology Syllabus

UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam consists of Sociology as one of the Optional Subjects with 2 papers (paper I and paper II). Each paper is of 250 marks with a total of 500 marks.  


Sociology – The Discipline:

  • Modernity and social changes in Europe and emergence of sociology.

  • Scope of the subject and comparison with other social sciences.

  • Sociology and common sense.

Sociology as Science:

  • Science, scientific method and critique.

  • Major theoretical strands of research methodology.

  • Positivism and its critique.

  • Fact value and objectivity.

  • Non- positivist methodologies.

Research Methods and Analysis:

  • Qualitative and quantitative methods.

  • Techniques of data collection.

  • Variables, sampling, hypothesis, reliability and validity.

Sociological Thinkers:

  • Karl Marx- Historical materialism, mode of production, alienation, class struggle.

  • Emile Durkheim- Division of labour, social fact, suicide, religion and society. (c)   Max Weber- Social action, ideal types, authority, bureaucracy, protestant ethic and the spirit of capitalism.

  • Talcolt Parsons- Social system, pattern variables.

  • Robert K. Merton- Latent and manifest functions, conformity and deviance, reference groups.

  • Mead – Self and identity.

Stratification and Mobility:

  • Concepts- equality, inequality, hierarchy, exclusion, poverty and deprivation. (b) Theories of social stratification- Structural functionalist theory, Marxist theory, Weberian theory.

  • Dimensions – Social stratification of class, status groups, gender, ethnicity and race.

  • Social mobility- open and closed systems, types of mobility, sources and causes of mobility.

Works and Economic Life:

  • Social organization of work in different types of society- slave society, feudal society, industrial /capitalist society.

  • Formal and informal organization of work.

  • Labour and society.

Politics and Society:

  • Sociological theories of power.

  • Power elite, bureaucracy, pressure groups, and political parties.

  • Nation, state, citizenship, democracy, civil society, ideology.

  • Protest, agitation, social movements, collective action, revolution.

Religion and Society:

  • Sociological theories of religion.

  • Types of religious practices: animism, monism, pluralism, sects, cults.

  • Religion in modern society: religion and science, secularization, religious revivalism, fundamentalism.

Systems of Kinship:

  • Family, household, marriage.

  • Types and forms of family.

  • Lineage and descent.

  • Patriarchy and sexual division of labour.

  • Contemporary trends.

Social Change in Modern Society:

  • Sociological theories of social change.

  • Development and dependency.

  • Agents of social change.

  • Education and social change.

  • Science, technology and social change.


 Introducing Indian Society: 

  • Perspectives on the study of Indian society:

    • Indology (GS. Ghurye).

    • Structural functionalism (M N Srinivas).

    • Marxist sociology (A R Desai). 


  • Impact of colonial rule on Indian society :

    • Social background of Indian nationalism.

    • Modernization of Indian tradition.

    • Protests and movements during the colonial period.

    • Social reforms.

Social Structure:

  • Rural and Agrarian Social Structure:

    • The idea of Indian village and village studies.

    • Agrarian social structure – evolution of land tenure system, land reforms. 

  • Caste System:   

    • Perspectives on the study of caste systems: GS Ghurye, M N Srinivas, Louis Dumont, Andre Beteille.

    •  Features of caste system.

    • Untouchability – forms and perspectives. 



  • Tribal communities in India: 

    • Definitional problems.

    • Geographical spread.

    • Colonial policies and tribes.

    • Issues of integration and autonomy. 

  • Social Classes in India: 

    •  Agrarian class structure.

    • Industrial class structure.

    • Middle classes in India. 

  • Systems of Kinship in India:  

    • Lineage and descent in India.

    • Types of kinship systems.

    • Family and marriage in India.

    • Household dimensions of the family.

    • Patriarchy, entitlements and sexual division of labour. 

  • Religion and Society: 

    • Religious communities in India.

    • Problems of religious minorities.

Social Changes in India:

  • Visions of Social Change in India:   \

    • Idea of development planning and mixed economy.

    • Constitution, law and social change.

    • Education and social change.

  • Rural and Agrarian transformation in India: 

    • Programmes of rural development, Community Development Programme, cooperatives, poverty alleviation schemes.

    • Green revolution and social change.

    • Changing modes of production in Indian agriculture .

    • Problems of rural labour, bondage, migration. 

  • Industrialization and Urbanisation in India: 

    • Evolution of modern industry in India.

    • Growth of urban settlements in India.

    •  Working class: structure, growth, class mobilization.

    • Informal sector, child labour.

    • Slums and deprivation in urban areas. 

  • Politics and Society: 

    • Nation, democracy and citizenship.

    • Political parties, pressure groups, social and political elite.

    • Regionalism and decentralization of power.

    • Secularization. 

  • Social Movements in Modern India:   

    • Peasants and farmers movements.

    • Women’s movement.

    • Backward classes & Dalit movement.

    • Environmental movements.

    • Ethnicity and Identity movements. 

  • Population Dynamics: 

    • Population size, growth, composition and distribution.

    • Components of population growth: birth, death, migration.

    • Population policy and family planning.

    • Emerging issues: ageing, sex ratios, child and infant mortality, reproductive health. 

  • Challenges of Social Transformation: 

    • Crisis of development: displacement, environmental problems and sustainability.

    • Poverty, deprivation and inequalities.

    • Violence against women.

    • Caste conflicts.

    • Ethnic conflicts, communalism, religious revivalism.

    • lliteracy and disparities in education.  



IAS Law Syllabus

UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam consists of Law as one of the Optional Subjects with 2 papers (paper I and paper II). Each paper is of 250 marks with a total of 500 marks.   


Constitutional and Administrative Law

  • Constitution and Constitutionalism: The distinctive features of the Constitution.

  • Fundamental rights – Public interest litigation; Legal Aid; Legal services authority.

  • Relationship between fundamental rights, directive principles and fundamental duties.

  • Constitutional position of the President and relation with the Council of Ministers.

  • Governor and his powers.

  • Supreme Court and High Courts:

    •  Appointments and transfer.

    • Powers, functions and jurisdiction.

  • Centre, States and local bodies:

    • Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States.

    • Local bodies.

    •  Administrative relationship among Union, State and Local Bodies.

    • Eminent domain – State property – common property – community property.

  • Legislative powers, privileges and immunities.

  • Services under the Union and the States:

    • Recruitment and conditions of services; Constitutional safeguards; Administrative tribunals.

    • Union Public Service Commission and State Public Service Commissions – Power and functions

    • Election Commission – Power and functions. 

  • Emergency provisions.

  • Amendment of the Constitution.

  • Principles of natural justice – Emerging trends and judicial approach. 

  • Delegated legislation and its constitutionality.

  • Separation of powers and constitutional governance.

  • Judicial review of administrative action.

  • Ombudsman: Lokayukta, Lokpal etc.

International Law

  • Nature and definition of international law.

  • Relationship between international law and municipal law.

  • State recognition and state succession.

  • Law of the sea: Inland waters, territorial sea, contiguous zone, continental shelf, exclusive economic zone, high seas.

  • Individuals: Nationality, statelessness; Human rights and procedures available for their enforcement.

  • Territorial jurisdiction of States, extradition and asylum.

  • Treaties: Formation, application, termination and reservation.

  • United Nations: Its principal organs, powers, functions and reform.

  • Peaceful settlement of disputes – different modes.

  • Lawful recourse to force: aggression, self-defence, intervention.

  • Fundamental principles of international humanitarian law – International conventions and contemporary developments.  

  • Legality of the use of nuclear weapons; ban on testing of nuclear weapons; Nuclear – non proliferation treaty, CTBT.

  • International terrorism, state sponsored terrorism, hijacking, international criminal court.

  • New international economic order and monetary law: WTO, TRIPS, GATT, IMF, World Bank.

  • Protection and improvement of the human environment: International efforts.


Law of Crimes

  • General principles of criminal liability: Mens rea and actus reus, mens rea in statutory offences.

  • Kinds of punishment and emerging trends as to abolition of capital punishment.

  • Preparation and criminal attempt.

  • General exceptions.

  • Joint and constructive liability.

  • Abetment.

  • Criminal conspiracy.

  • Offences against the State.

  • Offences against public tranquility.

  • Offences against human body.

  • Offences against property.

  • Offences against women.

  • Defamation.

  • Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

  • Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955 and subsequent legislative developments.

  • Plea bargaining.

Law of Torts

  • Nature and definition.

  • Liability based upon fault and strict liability; Absolute liability.

  • Vicarious liability including State liability.

  • General defences.

  • Joint tort feasors.

  • Remedies.

  • Negligence.

  • Defamation.

  • Nuisance.

  • Conspiracy.

  • False imprisonment.

  • Malicious prosecution.

  • Consumer Protection Act, 1986.

  Law of Contracts and Mercantile Law  

  • Nature and formation of contract/Econtract.

  • Factors vitiating free consent.


  • Void, voidable, illegal and unenforceable agreements.

  • Performance and discharge of contracts.

  • Quasi- Contracts.

  • Consequences of breach of contract.

  • Contract of indemnity, guarantee and insurance.

  • Contract of agency.

  • Sale of goods and hire purchase.

  • Formation and dissolution of partnership.

  • Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.

  • Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

  • Standard form contracts.

  Contemporary Legal Developments  

  • Public Interest Litigation.

  • Intellectual property rights – Concept, types/prospects.

  • Information Technology Law including Cyber Laws – Concept, purpose/prospects.

  • Competition Law- Concept, purpose/prospects.

  • Alternate Dispute Resolution – Concept, types/prospects.

  • Major statutes concerning environmental law.

  • Right to Information Act.

  • Trial by media



IAS Mathematics Syllabus

UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam consists of Mathematics as one of the Optional Subjects with 2 papers (paper I and paper II). This post provides you with the UPSC Mathematics optional syllabus. Each paper is of 250 marks with a total of 500 marks.


Linear Algebra: 

  • Vector spaces over R and C, linear dependence and independence, subspaces, bases, dimension; Linear transformations, rank and nullity, matrix of a linear transformation. Algebra of Matrices; Row and column reduction, Echelon form, congruence’s and similarity; Rank of a matrix; Inverse of a matrix; Solution of system of linear equations; Eigenvalues and eigenvectors, characteristic polynomial, Cayley-Hamilton theorem, Symmetric, skew-symmetric, Hermitian, skew-Hermitian, orthogonal and unitary matrices and their eigenvalues.


  • Real numbers, functions of a real variable, limits, continuity, differentiability, meanvalue theorem, Taylor’s theorem with remainders, indeterminate forms, maxima and minima, asymptotes; Curve tracing; Functions of two or three variables: limits, continuity, partial derivatives, maxima and minima, Lagrange’s method of multipliers, Jacobian. Riemann’s definition of definite integrals; Indefinite integrals; Infinite and improper integrals; Double and triple integrals (evaluation techniques only); Areas, surface and volumes.

Analytic Geometry: 

  • Cartesian and polar coordinates in three dimensions, second degree equations in three variables, reduction to canonical forms, straight lines, shortest distance between two skew lines; Plane, sphere, cone, cylinder, paraboloid, ellipsoid, hyperboloid of one and two sheets and their properties.

Ordinary Differential Equations: 

  • Formulation of differential equations; Equations of first order and first degree, integrating factor; Orthogonal trajectory; Equations of first order but not of first degree, Clairaut’s equation, singular solution. Second and higher order linear equations with constant coefficients, complementary function, particular integral and general solution. Second order linear equations with variable coefficients, Euler-Cauchy equation; Determination of complete solution when one solution is known using method of variation of parameters. Laplace and Inverse Laplace transforms and their properties; Laplace transforms of elementary functions. Application to initial value problems for 2nd order linear equations with constant coefficients.

Dynamics & Statics:

  • Rectilinear motion, simple harmonic motion, motion in a plane, projectiles; constrained motion; Work and energy, conservation of energy; Kepler’s laws, orbits under central forces. Equilibrium of a system of particles; Work and potential energy, friction; common catenary; Principle of virtual work; Stability of equilibrium, equilibrium of forces in three dimensions.

Vector Analysis: 

  • Scalar and vector fields, differentiation of vector field of a scalar variable; Gradient, divergence and curl in cartesian and cylindrical coordinates; Higher order derivatives; Vector identities and vector equations. Application to geometry: Curves in space, Curvature and torsion; Serret-Frenet’s formulae. Gauss and Stokes’ theorems, Green’s identities.



  • Groups, subgroups, cyclic groups, cosets, Lagrange’s Theorem, normal subgroups, quotient groups, homomorphism of groups, basic isomorphism theorems, permutation groups, Cayley’s theorem. Rings, subrings and ideals, homomorphisms of rings; Integral domains, principal ideal domains, Euclidean domains and unique factorization domains; Fields, quotient fields.

Real Analysis: 

  • Real number system as an ordered field with least upper bound property; Sequences, limit of a sequence, Cauchy sequence, completeness of real line; Series and its convergence, absolute and conditional convergence of series of real and complex terms, rearrangement of series. Continuity and uniform continuity of functions, properties of continuous functions on compact sets. Riemann integral, improper integrals; Fundamental theorems of integral calculus. Uniform convergence, continuity, differentiability and integrability for sequences and series of functions; Partial derivatives of functions of several (two or three) variables, maxima and minima.

Complex Analysis: 

  • Analytic functions, Cauchy-Riemann equations, Cauchy’s theorem, Cauchy’s integral formula, power series representation of an analytic function, Taylor’s series; Singularities; Laurent’s series; Cauchy’s residue theorem; Contour integration.

Linear Programming: 

  • Linear programming problems, basic solution, basic feasible solution and optimal solution; Graphical method and simplex method of solutions; Duality. Transportation and assignment problems.

Partial differential equations: 

  • Family of surfaces in three dimensions and formulation of partial differential equations; Solution of quasilinear partial differential equations of the first order, Cauchy’s method of characteristics; Linear partial differential equations of the second order with constant coefficients, canonical form; Equation of a vibrating string, heat equation, Laplace equation and their solutions.

 Numerical Analysis and Computer programming: 

  • Numerical methods: Solution of algebraic and transcendental equations of one variable by bisection, Regula-Falsi and Newton-Raphson methods; solution of system of linear equations by Gaussian elimination and Gauss-Jordan (direct), Gauss-Seidel(iterative) methods. Newton’s (forward and backward) interpolation, Lagrange’s interpolation. Numerical integration: Trapezoidal rule, Simpson’s rules, Gaussian quadrature formula. Numerical solution of ordinary differential equations: Euler and Runga Kutta-methods. Computer Programming: Binary system; Arithmetic and logical operations on numbers; Octal and Hexadecimal systems; Conversion to and from decimal systems; Algebra of binary numbers. Elements of computer systems and concept of memory; Basic logic gates and truth tables, Boolean algebra, normal forms. Representation of unsigned integers, signed integers and reals, double precision reals and long integers. Algorithms and flow charts for solving numerical analysis problems.

Mechanics and Fluid Dynamics: 

  • Generalized coordinates; D’ Alembert’s principle and Lagrange’s equations; Hamilton equations; Moment of inertia; Motion of rigid bodies in two dimensions. Equation of continuity; Euler’s equation of motion for inviscid flow; Stream-lines, path of a particle; Potential flow; Two-dimensional and axisymmetric motion; Sources and sinks, vortex motion; Navier-Stokes equation for a viscous fluid.    


IAS Management Syllabus

UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam consists of Management as one of the Optional Subjects with 2 papers (paper I and paper II). Each paper is of 250 marks with a total of 500 marks.


  • Candidates should understand the concept and development of management in the form of science and art considering the contributions of prominent thinkers of management and imply the ideology in business decision-making and to the real life of government keeping in view the changes in the strategic and functional environment.


Managerial Function and Process:

  • Concept and Foundations of Management, Evolution of Management Thoughts; Managerial Functions – Planning, Organizing, Controlling; Decision making; Role of Manager, Managerial skills; Entrepreneurship; Management of innovation; Managing in a global environment, Flexible Systems Management; Social responsibility and managerial ethics; Process and customer orientation; Managerial processes on direct and indirect value chain.

Organizational Behaviour and Design:

  • Conceptual model of organization behaviour; The individual processes – personality, values and attitude, perception, motivation, learning and reinforcement, work stress and stress management; The dynamics of organization behaviour – power and politics, conflict and negotia-tion, leadership process and styles, communication; The Organizational Processes – decision making, job design; Classical, Neoclassical and Contingency approaches to organizational design; Organizational theory and design – organizational culture, managing cultural diversity, learning organization; organizational change and development; Knowledge Based Enterprise – systems and processes; Networked and virtual organizations.

Human Resource Management:

  • HR challenges; HRM functions; The future challenges of HRM; Strategic Management of human resources; Human resource planning; Job analysis; Job evaluation; Recruitment and selection; Training and development; Promotion and transfer; Performance management; Compensation management and benefits; Employee morale and productivity; Management of organizational climate and Industrial relations; Human resources accounting and audit; Human resource information system; International human resource management.

Accounting for Managers:

  • Financial accounting – concept, importance and scope, generally accepted accounting principles, preparation of financial tatements with special reference to analysis of a balance sheet and measurement of business income, inventory valuation and depreciation, financial statement analysis, fund flow analysis, the statement of cash flows; Management accounting – concept, need, importance and scope; Cost accounting – records and processes, cost ledger and control accounts, reconciliation and integration between financial and cost accounts; Overhead cost and control, Job and process costing, Budget and budgetary control, Performance budgeting, Zero-base budgeting, relevant costing and costing for decision-making, standard costing and variance analysis, marginal costing and absorption costing.

Financial Management:

  • Goals of finance function; Concepts of value and return; Valuation of bonds and shares; Management of working capital: Estimation and financing; Management of cash, receivables, inventory and current liabilities; Cost of capital; Capital budgeting; Financial and operating leverage; Design of capital structure: theories and practices; Shareholder value creation: dividend policy, corporate financial policy and strategy, management of corporate distress and restructuring strategy; Capital and money markets: institutions and instruments; Leasing, hire purchase and venture capital; Regulation of capital market; Risk and return: portfolio theory; CAPM; APT; Financial derivatives: option, futures, swap; Recent reforms in financial sector.

Marketing Management:

  • Concept, evolution and scope; Marketing strategy formulation and components of marketing plan; Segmenting and targeting the market; Positioning and differentiating the market offering; Analyzing competition; Analyzing consumer markets; Industrial buyer behaviour; Market research; Product strategy; Pricing strategies; Designing and managing Marketing channels; Integrated marketing communications; Building customer satisfaction, Value and retention; Services and non-profit marketing; Ethics in marketing; Consumer protection; Internet marketing; Retail management; Customer relationship management; Concept of holistic marketing.


Quantitative Techniques in Decision Making: 

  • Descriptive statistics – tabular, graphical and numerical methods, introduction to probability, discrete and continuous probability distributions, inferential statistics-sampling distributions, central limit theorem, hypothesis testing for differences between means and proportions, inference about population variances, Chi-square and ANOVA, simple correlation and regression, time series and forecasting, decision theory, index numbers; Linear programming – problem formulation, simplex method and graphical solution, sensitivity analysis.

Production and Operations Management:

  • Fundamentals of operations management; Organizing for production; Aggregate production planning, capacity planning, plant design: process planning, plant size and scale of operations, Management of facilities; Line balancing; Equipment replacement and maintenance; Production control; Supply chain management – vendor evaluation and audit; Quality management; Statistical process control, Six Sigma; Flexibility and agility in manufacturing systems; World class manufacturing; Project management concepts, R&D management, Management of service operations; Role and importance of materials management, value analysis, make or buy decision; Inventory control, MRP; Waste management.

Management Information System:

  • Conceptual foundations of information systems; Information theory; Information resource management; Types of information systems; Systems development – Overview of systems and design; System development management life-cycle, Designing for online and distributed environments; Implementation and control of project; Trends in information technology; Managing data resources – Organising data; DSS and RDBMS; Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP), Expert systems, e-Business architecture, e-Governance; Information systems planning, Flexibility in information systems; User involvement; Evaluation of information systems.

Government Business Interface:

  • State participation in business, Interaction between Government, Business and different Chambers of Commerce and Industry in India; Government’s policy with regard to Small Scale Industries; Government clearances for establishing a new enterprise; Public Distribution System; Government control over price and distribution; Consumer Protection Act (CPA) and The Role of voluntary organizations in protecting consumers’ rights; New Industrial Policy of the Government: liberalization, deregulation and privatisation; Indian planning system; Government policy concerning development of Backward areas/regions; The Responsibilities of the business as well as the Government to protect the environment; Corporate Governance; Cyber Laws.

Strategic Management:

  • Business policy as a field of study; Nature and scope of strategic management, Strategic intent, vision, objectives and policies; Process of strategic planning and implementation; Environmental analysis and internal analysis; SWOT analysis; Tools and techniques for strategic analysis – Impact matrix: The experience curve, BCG matrix, GEC mode, Industry analysis, Concept of value chain; Strategic profile of a firm; Framework for analysing competition; Competitive advantage of a firm; Generic competitive strategies; Growth strategies – expansion, integration and diversification; Concept of core competence, Strategic flexibility; Reinventing strategy; Strategy and structure; Chief Executive and Board; Turnaround management; Management of strategic change; Strategic alliances, Mergers and Acquisitions; Strategy and corporate evolution in the Indian context.

International Business:

  • International Business Environment: Changing composition of trade in goods and services; India’s Foreign Trade: Policy and trends; Financing of International trade; Regional Economic Cooperation; FTAs; Internationalization of service firms; International production; Operation Management in International companies; International Taxation; Global competitiveness and technological developments; Global e-Business; Designing global organizational structure and control; Multicultural management; Global business strategy; Global marketing strategies; Export Management; Export- Import procedures; Joint Ventures; Foreign Investment: Foreign direct investment and foreign portfolio investment; Cross-border Mergers and Acquisitions; Foreign Exchange Risk Exposure Management; World Financial Markets and International Banking; External Debt Management; Country Risk Analysis.  

IAS Mechanical Engineering Syllabus

UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam consists of Mechanical Engineering as one of the Optional Subjects with 2 papers (paper I and paper II). Each paper is of 250 marks with a total of 500 marks



  • Mechanics of rigid bodies: Equations of equilibrium in space and its application; first and second moments of area; simple problems on friction; kinematics of particles for plane motion; elementary particle dynamics. 

  • Mechanics of deformable bodies: Generalized Hooke’s law and its application; design problems on axial stress, shear stress and bearing stress; material properties for dynamic loading; bending shear and stresses in beams;. determination of principle stresses and strains – analytical and graphical; compound and combined stresses; bi- axial stresses – thin walled pressure vessel; material behaviour and design factors for dynamic load; design of circular shafts for bending and torsional load only; deflection of beam for statically determinate problems; theories of failure.

Engineering Materials:

  • Basic concepts on structure of solids; common ferrous and non-ferrous materials and their applications; heat-treatment of steels; non-metals- plastics, ceramics, composite materials and nano-materials.

Theory of Machines:

  • Kinematic and dynamic analysis of plane mechanisms. Cams, Gears and epicyclic gear trains, flywheels, governors, balancing of rigid rotors, balancing of single and multicylinder engines, linear vibration analysis of mechanical systems (single degree of freedom), Critical speeds and whirling of shafts.

Manufacturing Science:

  • Manufacturing Process: Machine tool engineering – Merchant’s force analysis; Taylor’s tool life equation; conventional machining; NC and CNC machining process; jigs and fixtures. Non-conventional machining – EDM, ECM, ultrasonic, water jet machining etc; application of lasers and plasmas; energy rate calculations. Forming and welding processes- standard processes. Metrology – concept of fits and tolerances; tools and gauges; comparators; inspection of length; position; profile and surface finish. 

  • Manufacturing Management: System design: factory location- simple OR models; plant layout – methods based; applications of engineering economic analysis and break- even analysis for product selection, process selection and capacity planning; predetermined time standards. System planning; forecasting methods based on regression and decomposition, design and balancing of multi model andstochastic assembly lines; inventory management – probabilistic inventory models for order time and order quantity determination; JIT systems; strategic sourcing; managing inter plant logistics. System operations and control: Scheduling algorithms for job shops; applications of statistical methods for product and process quality control – applications of control charts for mean, range, percent defective, number of defectives and defects per unit; quality cost systems; management of resources, organizations and risks in projects. System improvement: Implementation of systems, such as total quality management, developing and managing flexible, lean and agile organizations. 



Thermodynamics, Gas Dynamics and Turbine:

  • Basic concept of First – law and second law of Thermodynamics; concept of entropy and reversibility; availability and unavailability and irreversibility.

  •  Classification and properties of fluids; incompressible and compressible fluids flows; effect of Mach number and compressibility; continuity momentum and energy equations; normal and oblique shocks; one dimensional isentropic flow; flow or fluids in duct with frictions that transfer.

  • Flow through fans, blowers and compressors; axial and centrifugal flow configuration; design of fans and compressors; single problems compresses and turbine cascade; open and closed cycle gas turbines; work done in the gas turbine; reheat and regenerators.

Heat Transfer:

  • Conduction heat transfer- general conduction equation – Laplace, Poisson and Fourier equations; Fourier law of conduction; one dimensional steady state heat conduction applied to simple wall, solid and hollow cylinder & spheres.

  • Convection heat transfer- Newton’s law of convection; free and forces convection; heat transfer during laminar and turbulent flow of an incompressible fluid over a flat plate; concepts of Nusselt number, hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layer their thickness; Prandtl number; analogy between heat and momentum transferReynolds, Colbum, Prandtl analogies; heat transfer during laminar and turbulent flow through horizontal tubes; free convection from horizontal and vertical plates.

  • Black body radiation – basic radiation laws such as Stefan-Boltzman, Planck distribution, Wein’s displacement etc.

  • Basic heat exchanger analysis; classification of heat exchangers.

I .C. Engines:

  • Classification, thermodynamic cycles of operation; determination of break power, indicated power, mechanical efficiency, heat balance sheet, interpretation of performance characteristics, petrol, gas and diesel engines.

  • Combustion in SI and CI engines, normal and abnormal combustion; effect of working parameters on knocking, reduction of knocking; Forms of combustion chamber for SI and CI engines; rating of fuels; additives; emission.

  • Different systems of IC engines- fuels; lubricating; cooling and transmission systems. Alternate fuels in IC engines.

Steam Engineering:

  • Steam generation- modified Rankine cycle analysis; Modern steam boilers; steam at critical and supercritical pressures; draught equipment; natural and artificial draught; boiler fuels solid, liquid and gaseous fuels. Steam turbines – principle; types; compounding; impulse and reaction turbines; axial thrust.

  • Steam nozzles- flow of steam in convergent and divergent nozzle; pressure at throat for maximum discharge with different initial steam conditions such as wet, saturated and superheated, effect of variation of back pressure; supersaturated flow of steam in nozzles, Wilson line.

  • Rankine cycle with internal and external irreversibility; reheat factor; reheating and regeneration, methods of governing; back pressure and pass out turbines.

  • Steam power plants – combined cycle power generation; heat recovery steam generators (HRSG) fired and unfired, co- generation plants.

Refrigeration and air-conditioning:

  • Vapor compression refrigeration cycle – cycle on p-H & T-s diagrams; eco-friendly refrigerants – R134a,123; Systems like evaporators, condensers, compressor, expansion devices. Simple vapour absorption systems.

  • Psychometric – properties; processes; charts; sensible heating and cooling; humidification and dehumidification effective temperature; air-conditioning load calculation; simple duct design



IAS Medical Science Syllabus


Human Anatomy:

  • Applied anatomy including blood and nerve supply of upper and lower limbs and joints of shoulder, hip and knee. Gross anatomy, blood supply and lymphatic drainage of tongue, thyroid, mammary gland, stomach, liver, prostate, gonads and uterus. Applied anatomy of diaphragm, perineum and inguinal region. Clinical anatomy of kidney, urinary bladder, uterine tubes, vas deferens. Embryology: Placenta and placental barrier. Development of heart, gut, kidney, uterus, ovary, testis and their common congenital abnormalities. Central and peripheral autonomic nervous system : Gross and clinical anatomy of ventricles of brain, circulation of cerebrospinal fluid; Neural pathways and lesions of cutaneous sensations, hearing and vision; Cranial nerves, distribution and clinical significance; Components of autonomic nervous system.

Human Physiology:

  • Conduction and transmission of impulse, mechanism of contraction, neuromuscular transmission, reflexes, control of equilibrium, posture and muscle tone, descending pathways, functions of cerebellum, basal ganglia, Physiology of sleep and consciousness. Endocrine system: Mechanism of action of hormones, formation, secretion, transport, metabolism, function and regulation of secretion of pancreas and pituitary gland. Physiology of reproductive system: Menstrual cycle, lactation, pregnancy. Blood: Development, regulation and fate of blood cells. Cardio-vascular, cardiac output, blood pressure, regulation of cardiovascular functions;


  • Organ function tests-liver, kidney, thyroid Protein synthesis. Vitamins and minerals. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP). Polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Radio – immunoassays (RIA).


  • Inflammation and repair, disturbances of growth and cancer, Pathogenesis and histopathology of rheumatic and ischemic heart disease and diabetes mellitus. Differentiation between benign, malignant, primary and metastatic malignancies, Pathogenesis and histopathology of bronchogenic carcinoma, carcinoma breast, oral cancer, cancer cervix, leukemia, Etiology, pathogenesis and histopathology of cirrhosis liver, glomerulonephritis, tuberculosis, acute osteomyelitis.


  • Humoral and cell mediated immunity Diseases caused by and laboratory diagnosis of – Meningococcus, Salmonella Shigella, Herpes, Dengue, Polio HIV/AIDS, Malaria, E. Histolytica, Giardia Candida, Cryptococcus, Aspergillus


  • Mechanism of action and side effects of the following drugs Antipyretics and analgesics, Antibiotics, Antimalaria; Antikala-azar,Antidiabetics Antihypertensive,  Antidiuretics,  General  and  cardiac  vasodilators,  Antiviral,  Antiparasitic, Antifungal,  Immunosuppressants Anticancer

Forensic Medicine and Toxicology:

  • Forensic examination of injuries and wounds; Examination of blood and seminal stains; poisoning, sedative overdose, hanging, drowning, burns, DNA and finger print study.


General Medicine:

  • Etiology, clinical features, diagnosis and principles of management (including prevention) of: – Tetanus, Rabies, AIDS, Dengue, Kala-azar, Japanese Encephalitis. Etiology, clinical features, diagnosis and principles of management of: Ischaemic heart disease, pulmonary embolism. Bronchial asthma. Pleural effusion, tuberculosis, Malabsorption syndromes, acid peptic diseases, Viral hepatitis and cirrhosis of liver. Glomerulonerphritis and pyelonephritis, renal failure, nephrotic syndrome, renovascular hypertension, complications of diabetes mellitus, coagulation disorders, leukemia, Hypo and hyper thyrodism, meningitis and encephalitis. Imaging in medical problems, ultrasound, echocardiogram, CT scan, MRI. Anxiety and Depressive Psychosis and schizophrenia and ECT.


  • Immunization, Baby friendly hospital, congenital cyanotic heart disease, respiratory distress syndrome, broncho – pneumonias, kernicterus. IMNCI classification and management, PEM grading and management. ARI and Diarrhea of under five and their management.


  • Psoriasis, Allergic dermatitis, scabies, eczema, vitiligo, Stevan Johnson’s syndrome, Lichen Planus.

General Surgery:

  • Clinical features, causes, diagnosis and principles of management of cleft palate, harelip. Laryngeal tumor, oral and esophageal tumors. Peripheral arterial diseases, varicose veins, coarctation of aorta. Tumors of Thyroid, Adrenal Glands. Abscess, cancer, fibro adenoma and adenosis of breast. Bleeding peptic ulcer, tuberculosis of bowel, ulcerative colitis, cancer stomach. Renal mass, cancer Prostate. Haemothorax, stones of Gall bladder, Kidney, Ureter and Urinary Bladder. Management of surgical conditions of Rectum, Anus and Anal canal, Gall bladder and Bile ducts. Splenomegaly, cholecystitis, portal hypertension, liver abscess, peritonitis, carcinoma head of pancreas. Fractures of spine, Colles’ fracture and bone tumors. Endoscopy. Laprascopic Surgery.

Obstetrics and Gynaecology including Family Planning:

  • Diagnosis of pregnancy. Labour management, complications of 3rd stage, Antepartum and postpartum hemorrhage, resuscitation of the newborn, Management of abnormal lie and difficult labour, Management of small for date or premature newborn. Diagnosis and management of anemia. Preeclampsia and Toxaemias of pregnancy, Management of Post menopausal Syndrome. Intra-uterine devices, pills, tubectomy and vasectomy. Medical termination of pregnancy including legal aspects. Cancer cervix. Leucorrhoea, pelvic pain, infertility, dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB), amenorrhoea, Fibroid and prolapse of uterus.

Community Medicine (Preventive and Social Medicine):

Principles, methods, approach and measurements of Epidemiology. Nutrition, nutritional diseases / disorders & Nutrition Programmes. Health information Collection, Analysis and Presentation. Objectives, components and critical analysis of National programmes for control/eradication of: Malaria, Kala-azar, Filaria and Tuberculosis, HIV/AIDS, STDs and Dengue Critical appraisal of Health care delivery system. Health management and administration: Techniques, Tools, Programme Implementation and Evaluation. Objective, Component, Goals and Status of Reproductive and Child Health, National Rural Health Mission and Millennium Development Goals. Management of hospital and industrial waste.    

IAS Statistics Syllabus

UPSC Civil Services Mains Exam consists of Statistics as one of the Optional Subjects with 2 papers (paper I and paper II). Each paper is of 250 marks with a total of 500 marks.



  • Sample space and events, probability measure and probability space, random variable as a measurable function, distribution function of a random variable, discrete and continuous-type random variable, probability mass function, probability density function, vector-valued random variable, marginal and conditional distributions, stochastic independence of events and of random variables, expectation and moments of a random variable, conditional expectation, convergence of a sequence of random variable in distribution, in probability, in p-th mean and almost everywhere, their criteria and inter-relations, Chebyshev’s inequality and Khintchine‘s weak law of large numbers, strong law of large numbers and Kolmogoroff’s theorems, probability generating function, moment generating function, characteristic function, inversion theorem, Linderberg and Levy forms of central limit theorem, standard discrete and continuous probability distributions.

Statistical Inference:

  • Consistency, unbiasedness, efficiency, sufficiency, completeness, ancillary statistics, factorization theorem, exponential family of distribution and its properties, uniformly minimum variance unbiased (UMVU) estimation, Rao-Blackwell and Lehmann-Scheffe theorems, Cramer-Rao inequality for single parameter. Estimation by methods of moments, maximum likelihood, least squares, minimum chi- square and modified minimum chi-square, properties of maximum likelihood and other estimators, asymptotic efficiency, prior and posterior distributions, loss function, risk function, and minimax estimator. Bayes estimators. Non-randomised and randomised tests, critical function, MP tests, Neyman-Pearson lemma, UMP tests, monotone likelihood ratio, similar and unbiased tests, UMPU tests for single parameter likelihood ratio test and its asymptotic distribution. Confidence bounds and its relation with tests. Kolmogoroff’s test for goodness of fit and its consistency, sign test and its optimality. Wilcoxon signed-ranks test and its consistency, Kolmogorov-Smirnov two-sample test, run test, Wilcoxon-Mann-Whitney test and median test, their consistency and asymptotic normality. Wald’s SPRT and its properties, OC and ASN functions for tests regarding parameters for Bernoulli, Poisson, normal and exponential distributions. Wald’s fundamental identity.

Linear Inference and Multivariate Analysis:

  • Linear statistical models’, theory of least squares and analysis of variance, Gauss-Markoff theory, normal equations, least squares estimates and their precision, test of significance and interval estimates based on least squares theory in one-way, two-way and three-way classified data, regression analysis, linear regression, curvilinear regression and orthogonal polynomials, multiple regression, multiple and partial correlations, estimation of variance and covariance components, multivariate normal distribution, Mahalanobis-D2 and Hotelling’s T2 statistics and their applications and properties, discriminant analysis, canonical correlations, principal component analysis.

Sampling Theory and Design of Experiments:

  • An outline of fixed-population and superpopulation approaches, distinctive features of finite population sampling, probability sampling designs, simple random sampling with and without replacement, stratified random sampling, systematic sampling and its efficacy , cluster sampling, twostage and multi-stage sampling, ratio and regression methods of estimation involving one or more auxiliary variables, two -phase sampling, probability proportional to size sampling with and without replacement, the Hansen-Hurwitz and the Horvitz-Thompson estimators, non-negative variance estimation with reference to the Horvitz-Thompson estimator, non-sampling errors. Fixed effects model (two-way classification) random and mixed effects models (two-way classification with equal observation per cell), CRD, RBD, LSD and their analyses, incomplete block designs, concepts of orthogonality and balance, BIBD, missing plot technique, factorial experiments and 2n and 32, confounding in factorial experiments, split-plot and simple lattice designs, transformation of data Duncan’s multiple range test.


Industrial Statistics:

  • Process and product control, general theory of control charts, different types of control charts for variables and attributes, X, R, s, p, np and c charts, cumulative sum chart. Single, double, multiple and sequential sampling plans for attributes, OC, ASN, AOQ and ATI curves, concepts of producer’s and consumer’s risks, AQL, LTPD and AOQL, Sampling plans for variables, Use of Dodge-Roming tables. Concept of reliability, failure rate and reliability functions, reliability of series and parallel systems and other simple configurations, renewal density and renewal function, Failure models: exponential, Weibull, normal, lognormal. Problems in life testing, censored and truncated experiments for exponential models.

Optimization Techniques:

  • Different types of models in Operations Research, their construction and general methods of solution, simulation and Monte- Carlo methods formulation of linear programming (LP) problem, simple LP model and its graphical solution, the simplex procedure, the two-phase method and the M-technique with artificial variables, the duality theory of LP and its economic interpretation, sensitivity analysis, transportation and assignment problems, rectangular games, twoperson zero-sum games, methods of solution (graphical and algebraic). Replacement of failing or deteriorating items, group and individual replacement policies, concept of scientific inventory management and analytical structure of inventory problems, simple models with deterministic and stochastic demand with and without lead time, storage models with particular reference to dam type. Homogeneous discrete-time Markov chains, transition probability matrix, classification of states and ergodic theorems, homogeneous continuous-time Markov chains, Poisson process, elements of queuing theory, M/M/1, M/M/K, G/M/1 and M/G/1 queues. Solution of statistical problems on computers using well-known statistical software packages like SPSS.

Quantitative Economics and Official Statistics:

  • Determination of trend, seasonal and cyclical components, Box-Jenkins method, tests for stationary series, ARIMA models and determination of orders of autoregressive and moving average components, forecasting. Commonly used index numbersLaspeyre’s, Paasche’s and Fisher’s ideal index numbers, chain-base index number, uses and limitations of index numbers, index number of wholesale prices, consumer prices, agricultural production and industrial production, test for index numbers proportionality, time-reversal, factor-reversal and circular . General linear model, ordinary least square and generalized least squares methods of estimation, problem of multi-collinearity, consequences and solutions of mult-icollinearity, auto-correlation and its consequences, heteroscedasticity of disturbances and its testing, test for independence of disturbances, concept of structure and model for simultaneous equations, problem of identification-rank and order conditions of identifiability, two-stage least square method of estimation. Present official statistical system in India relating to population, agriculture, industrial production, trade and prices, methods of collection of official statistics, their reliability and limitations, principal publications containing such statistics, various official agencies responsible for data collection and their main functions.

Demography and Psychometry:

  • Demographic data from census, registration, NSS other surveys, their limitations and uses, definition, construction and uses of vital rates and ratios, measures of fertility, reproduction rates, morbidity rate, standardized death rate, complete and abridged life tables, construction of life tables from vital statistics and census returns, uses of life tables, logistic and other population growth curves, fitting a logistic curve, population projection, stable population, quasi-stable population, techniques in estimation of demographic parameters, standard classification by cause of death, health surveys and use of hospital statistics. Methods of standardisation of scales and tests, Z-scores, standard scores, T-scores, percentile scores, intelligence quotient and its measurement and uses, validity and reliability of test scores and its determination, use of factor analysis and path analysis in psychometry.

IAS Zoology Syllabus

UPSC Mains Exam consists of Zoology as one of the Optional Subjects with 2 papers (paper I and paper II). Each paper is of 250 marks with a total of 500 marks for the IAS Mains exam.

Paper – I Syllabus

Non-chordata and Chordata:

  • Classification and relationship of various phyla up to subclasses: Acoelomate and Coelomate, Protostomes and Deuterostomes, Bilateria and Radiata; Status of Protista, Parazoa, Onychophora and Hemichordata; Symmetry.

  • Protozoa: Locomotion, nutrition, reproduction, sex; General features and life history of Paramaecium, Monocystis, Plasmodium and Leishmania.

  • Porifera: Skeleton, canal system and reproduction.

  • Cnidaria: Polymorphism, defensive structures and their mechanism; coral reefs and their formation; metagenesis; general features and life history of Obelia and Aurelia.

  • Platyhelminthes: Parasitic adaptation; general features and life history of Fasciola and Taenia and their pathogenic symptoms.

  • Nemathelminthes: General features, life history, parasitic adaptation of Ascaris and Wuchereria.

  • Annelida: Coelom and metamerism; modes of life in polychaetes; general features and life history of Nereis, earthworm and leach.

  •  Arthropoda: Larval forms and parasitism in Crustacea; vision and respiration in arthropods (Prawn, cockroach and scorpion); modification of mouth parts in insects (cockroach, mosquito, housefly, honey bee and butterfly); metamorphosis in insect and its hormonal regulation, social behaviour of Apis and termites.

  •  Mollusca: Feeding, respiration, locomotion, general features and life history of Lamellidens, Pila and Sepia, torsion and detorsion in gastropods.

  • Echinodermata: Feeding, respiration, locomotion, larval forms, general features and life history of Asterias.

  • Protochordata: Origin of chordates; general features and life history of Branchiostoma and Herdmania.

  • Pisces: Respiration, locomotion and migration.

  • Amphibia: Origin of tetrapods, parental care, paedomorphosis.

  • Reptilia: Origin of reptiles, skull types, status of Sphenodon and crocodiles.

  •  Aves: Origin of birds, flight adaptation, migration.

  •  Mammalia: Origin of mammals, dentition, general features of egg laying mammals, pouched-mammals, aquatic mammals and primates, endocrine glands (pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, pancreas, gonads) and their interrelationships.

  • Comparative functional anatomy of various systems of vertebrates (integument and its derivatives, endoskeleton, locomotory organs, digestive system, respiratory system, circulatory system including heart and aortic arches, urino-genital system, brain and sense organs (eye and ear).


  • Biosphere: Concept of biosphere; biomes, Biogeochemical cycles, Human induced changes in atmosphere including green house effect, ecological succession, biomes and ecotones, community ecology.

  • Concept of ecosystem; structure and function of ecosystem, types of ecosystem, ecological succession, ecological adaptation.

  • Population; characteristics, population dynamics, population stabilization.

  • Biodiversity and diversity conservation of natural resources.

  • Wildlife of India.

  • Remote sensing for sustainable development.

  • Environmental biodegradation, pollution and its impact on biosphere and its prevention.


  • Behaviour: Sensory filtering, reponsive-ness, sign stimuli, learning and memory, instinct, habituation, conditioning, imprinting.

  • Role of hormones in drive; role of pheromones in alarm spreading; crypsis, predator detection, predator tactics, social hierarchies in primates, social organization in insects.

  • Orientation, navigation, homing, biological rhythms, biological clock, tidal, seasonal and circadian rhythms.

  • Methods of studying animal behaviour including sexual conflict, selfishness, kinship and altruism.

Economic Zoology:

  •  Apiculture, sericulture, lac culture, carp culture, pearl culture, prawn culture, vermiculture.

  • Major infectious and communicable diseases (malaria, filaria, tuberculosis, cholera and AIDS) their vectors, pathogens and prevention.

  • Cattle and livestock diseases, their pathogen (helminthes) and vectors (ticks, mites, Tabanus, Stomoxys).

  • Pests of sugar cane (Pyrilla perpusiella) oil seed (Achaea janata) and rice (Sitophilus oryzae).

  • Transgenic animals.

  • Medical biotechnology, human genetic disease and genetic counseling, gene therapy.

  • Forensic biotechnology.


  • Designing of experiments; null hypothesis; correlation, regression, distribution and measure of central tendency, chi square, student-test, F-test (one-way & two-way Ftest).

Instrumentation Methods:

  • Spectrophotometer, phase contrast and fluorescence microscopy, radioactive tracer, ultra centrifuge, gel electrophoresis, PCR, ELISA, FISH and chromosome painting.

  • Electron microscopy (TEM, SEM).

Paper – II Syllabus

Cell Biology:

  • Structure and function of cell and its organelles (nucleus, plasma membrane, mitochondria, Golgi bodies, endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes, and lysosomes), cell division (mitosis and meiosis), mitotic spindle and mitotic apparatus, chromosome movements, chromosome type polytene and lambrush, organization of chromatin, heterochromatin, Cell cycle regulation.

  • Nucleic acid topology, DNA motif, DNA replication, transcription, RNA processing, translation, protein foldings and transport.


  • Modern concept of gene, split gene, genetic regulation, genetic code.

  • Sex chromosomes and their evolution, sex determination in Drosophila and man.

  • Mendel’s laws of inheritance, recombination, linkage, multiple alleles, genetics of blood groups, pedigree analysis, hereditary diseases in man.

  • Mutations and mutagenesis.

  • Recombinant DNA technology; plasmid, cosmid, artificial chromosomes as vectors, transgenic, DNA cloning and whole animal cloning (principles and methods).

  • Gene regulation and expression in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

  • Signal molecules, cell death, defects in signaling pathway and consequences.

  • RFLP, RAPD and AFLP and application of RFLP in DNA finger printing, ribozyme technologies, human genome project, genomics and protomics.


  • Theories of origin of life.

  • Theories of evolution; Natural selection, role of mutations in evolution, evolutionary patterns, molecular drive, mimicry, variation, isolation and speciation.

  • Evolution of horse, elephant and man using fossil data.

  • Hardy-Weinberg Law.

  • Continental drift and distribution of animals.


  • Zoological nomenclature, international code, cladistics, molecular taxonomy and biodiversity.


  • Structure and role of carbohydrates, fats, fatty acids and cholesterol, proteins and amino-acids, nucleic acids. Bioenergetics.

  • Glycolysis and Kreb cycle, oxidation and reduction, oxidative phosphorylation, energy conservation and release, ATP cycle, cyclic AMP – its structure and role.

  • Hormone classification (steroid and peptide hormones), biosynthesis and functions.

  • Enzymes: types and mechanisms of action.

  • Vitamins and co-enzymes

  • Immunoglobulin and immunity.

Physiology (with special reference to mammals):

  • Composition and constituents of blood; blood groups and Rh factor in man, factors and mechanism of coagulation, iron metabolism, acid-base balance, thermo-regulation, anticoagulants.

  •  Haemoglobin: Composition, types and role in transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide.

  • Digestion and absorption: Role of salivary glands, liver, pancreas and intestinal glands.

  • Excretion: nephron and regulation of urine formation; osmo-regulation and excretory product.

  •  Muscles: Types, mechanism of contraction of skeletal muscles, effects of exercise on muscles.

  • Neuron: nerve impulse – its conduction and synaptic transmission, neurotransmitters.

  • Vision, hearing and olfaction in man.

  • Physiology of reproduction, puberty and menopause in human.

Developmental Biology:

  • Gametogenesis; spermatogenesis, composition of semen, in vitro and in vivo capacitation of mammalian sperm, Oogenesis, totipotency; fertilization, morphogenesis and morphogen, blastogenesis, establishment of body axes formation, fate map, gestulation in frog and chick; genes in development in chick, homeotic genes, development of eye and heart, placenta in mammals.

  • Cell lineage, cell-to-cell interaction, Genetic and induced teratogenesis, role of thyroxine in control of metamorphosis in amphibia, paedogenesis and neoteny, cell death, aging.

  • Developmental genes in man, in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer, cloning.

  • Stem cells: Sources, types and their use in human welfare.

  • Biogenetic law.    


History Syllabus for UPSC General Studies

  • History is an integral part of the UPSC exam preparation. History portions are present in the UPSC prelims exam as well as the UPSC mains exam.

  •  In the mains exam, it is part of the General Studies Paper 1.

  • History is a subject that evokes mixed reactions from the candidates. While some candidates relish reading history, others simply dislike it.

  • History is an important subject as it connects the ancient past to the present. It helps us understand why the world is as it is today. It helps us explore who we really are. With the right approach, history can be one of the most interesting subjects there are. In this article, we give you the history syllabus for the UPSC general studies paper. It is a substantive part of the GS Paper I Syllabus in the mains exam. In this article you will read about the syllabus of ancient history for IAS, also about medieval and modern history.


Last 8 Year Prelims Paper

Prelims Paper- 1 (2019)

1. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements

1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.

2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.

3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A.  1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


2. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?

A.  To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit nd current account deficit

B. To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments

C. To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more

D. To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are-under consortium lending


3. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the

A.  Banks Board Bureau

B. Reserve Bank of India

C.   Union Ministry of Finance

D. Management of concerned bank


4. Consider the following statements:

1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.

2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to, ensure competitive markets for gas.

3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3     


5. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference / differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

1. LTE 'is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.

2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


6. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit ' (Amendment) Act, 2017?

1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.

2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.

3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


7. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?

A. Maintenance of law and order

B. Paying taxes

C. Registering property

D. Dealing with construction permits


8. In India,'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

A. The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998

B. The Recycled plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999

C. The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011

D. The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011


9. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus

A. Transportation cost only        

B. Interest cost only     

C. Procurement incidentals and distribution cost                             

D. Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns  


10. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?

A. The proportion of literates in the population

B. The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines

C. The size of population in the working age group

D. The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society


11. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of

A. Integrated Rural Programme

B. Lead Bank Scheme

C. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

D. National Skill Development Mission


12. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.

2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.

3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


13. Consider the following statements:

1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities.

2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only            

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


14. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?

A.  Advances

B. Deposits

C. Investments

D. Money at call and short notice


15. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector

2. Increasing government expenditure

3. Remittances from Indians abroad

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C.  2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


16. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

A. First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

B. Rajamannar Committee (1969)

C. Sarkaria Commission (1983)

D. National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)


17. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

A. Certificate of Deposit

B. Commercial Paper

C. Promissory Note

D. Participatory Note



18. Consider the following statements

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.

2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


19. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament

2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees

3. Finance Commission

4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2

B. 1, 3 and 4

C. 3, 4 and 5

D. 2 and 5


20. With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.

2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.

3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


21. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.

2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2



22. Consider the following statements

1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.

2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


23. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.

2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.

3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.

4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4


24. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?

A. Spices

B. Fresh fruits

C. Pulses

D. Vegetable oils


25. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

A. Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

B. Absence of restraint

C. Opportunity to do whatever one likes

D. Opportunity to develop oneself fully.


26. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?

A. Curbing imports of non-essential goods-and promoting exports

B. Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds

C. Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing

D. Following an expansionary monetary policy


27. Consider the following statements:

The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that

1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India

2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises

3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


28. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?

A. Australia

B. Canada

C. The European Union

D. The United States of America


29. Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries?

A. Japan

B. Russia

C. The United Kingdom

D. The United States of America


30. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

A. Increase in the cash reserve ratio

B. Increase in the banking habit of the population

C. Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio

D. Increase in the population of the country


31. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.

2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.

3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.

4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C.  1, 2 and 4

D. 1, 3 and 4


32. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

A.  The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

B. The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.

C.   In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.

D. State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.


33. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.

2. When a State Legislature does' not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


34. Consider the following statements:

1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'.

2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.

3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.

4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C.  2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4


35. Consider the following statements:

1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.

2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.

3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


36. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?

A.  Article 19

B. Article 21

C. Article 25

D. Article 29


37. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.

2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.

3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only             

D. 1, 2 and 3


38. Consider the following statements:

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought

2. lay down The standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C  Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


39. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

A.  Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.

B. The Rules are applicable to riotified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.

C.   The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.

D. It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.


40. Consider the following statements:

As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to layoff workers.

2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


41. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:

1. In Augmented Reality (AR) , a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.

2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.

3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.

4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 and 4

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 4 only


42. The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

A.  fossils of a kind of dinosaurs

B. an early human species

C.   a cave system found in North-East India.

D. a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent


43. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?

A.  Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

B. Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in Iaboratories.

C.   A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.

D. Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.


44. Consider the following statements:

A digital signature is

1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it

2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet.

3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


45. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?

1. Location identification of a person

2. Sleep monitoring of a person

3. Assisting the hearing impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


46. 'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?

1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.

2. It can be used in developing therapies for-the treatment of cancer.

3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.

4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 4

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. 1 and 4 only


47. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?

A.  'Higgs boson particles' were detected.

B. 'Gravitational waves' were detected.

C.  Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed.

D.  It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'.


48. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

1. Genetic predisposition of some people

2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases

3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming

4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. 2, 3 and 4


49. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news?

A. A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing

B. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients

C. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant

D. A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops


50. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.

B. Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.

C. Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.

D. Some of those infected with Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.


51. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

1. J agirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.

2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


52. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. The ceiling "laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.

B. The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.

C. It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.

D. Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.


53. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

A. International Monetary Fund

B. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

C. World Economic Forum

D. World Bank


54. Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813':

1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.

2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.

3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


55. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.

2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


56. Consider the following pairs:



1. All India Anti-Untouchability League

Mahatma Gandhi

2. All India Kisan Sabha

Swami Sahajanand Saraswati

3. Self-Respect Movement

E. V. Ramaswami Naicker


Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


57. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?

A. Chanhudaro

B. Kot Diji

C. Sohgaura

D. Desalpur


58. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?

A. Kanganahalli

B. Sanchi I

C. Shahbazgarhi

D. Sohgaura


59. Consider the following:

1. The deification of the Buddha

2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas

3. Image worship and rituals

Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


60. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.

B. It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.

C. The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.

D. The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.


61. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?

A. Tobacco, cocoa and rubber

B. Tobacco, cotton and rubber.

C. Cotton, coffee and sugarcane

D. Rubber, coffee and wheat


62. Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found III India only.

2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.

3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only            

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


63. Consider the following pairs

Famous place









Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A.1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


64. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because

A. Poverty rates vary from State to State

B. Price levels vary from State to State

C. Gross State Product varies from State to State

D. Quality of public distribution varies from State to State


65. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?

A. Creating artificial rains in some regions

B. Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones

C. Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth

D. Reducing global warming


66. In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?

A. Extraction of rare earth elements

B. Natural gas extraction technologies

C. Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles

D. Waste-to-energy technologies


67. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

A. Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

B. Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park

C. Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park

D. Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve


68. Consider the following statements:

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.

2. Some species of fish are herbivores.

3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.

4. Some speeies of snakes are viviparous.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A.  1 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4


69. Consider the following pairs:


Naturally found in

1. Blue-finned Mahseer

Cauvery River

2. Irrawaddy Dolphin

Chambal River

3. Rusty-spotted Cat

Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


70. Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?

A. They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.

B. They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.

C. They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.

D. They are often found to be used as food adulterants.


71. Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of

A. Chalukya

B. Chandela

C. Rashtrakuta

D. Vijayanagara


72. Consider the following statements:

1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.

2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.

3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


73. Consider the following statements:

1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.

2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only            

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


74. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'.

2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.

3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


75. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:


Position held

1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru

President, All India Liberal Federation

2. K. C. Neogy

Member, The Constituent Assembly

3. P. C. Joshi

General Secretary, Communist Party of India


Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C.  3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


76. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?

A.  Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.

B. Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.

C.   Tansen composed songs on his patrons.

D. Tansen invented many Ragas.


77. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?

A.  Humayun

B. Akbar

C.   Jahangir

D. Shah Jahan


78. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

A.  Manas National Park

B. Namdapha National Park

C.   Neora Valley National Park

D. Valley of Flowers National Park


79. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

A.  Department of Science and Technology

B. Ministry of Employment

C.   NITI Aayog

D. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship


80. On 21st June, the Sun

A. Does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

B. Does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

C. Shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

D. Shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn


81. Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.

2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.

3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


82. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

A. Recently discovered uranium deposits

B. Tropical rain forests

C. Underground cave systems

D. Water reservoirs


83. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1. The main adyantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.

2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.

3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.

4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4


84. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

A. Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.

B. Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.

C. The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.

D. Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.


85. Consider the following statements:

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only                            

B. 2 only                            

C. Both 1 and 2                

D. Neither 1 nor 2


86. Consider the following statements:

1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B. 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4


87. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Lal Bahadur Shastri

C. Indira Gandhi

D. Morarji Desai


88. Consider the following statements:

1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.

2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.

3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


89. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.

2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


90. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

A. Third Schedule

B. Fifth Schedule

C. Ninth Schedule

D. Twelfth Schedule


91. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of

A. Anti-malarial drug

B. Biodiesel

C. Pulp for the paper industry

D. Textile fiber


92. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location

2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location

3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


93. Consider the following States:

1. Chhattisgarh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Maharashtra

4. Odisha

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

A. 2-3-1-4

B. 2-3-4-1

C. 3-2-4-1

D. 3-2-1-4


94. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate?

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.

2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.

3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


95. Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide

2. Methane

3. Ozone

4. Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1 and 4 'only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4


96. Consider the following pairs:


Bordering country

1. Adriatic Sea


2. Black Sea


3. Gaspian Sea


4. Mediterranean Sea


5. Red Sea



Which of the pair given above are correctly matched?

A.  1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C.   2 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


97. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

A.  China

B. India

C.   Myanmar

D. Vietnam


98. Consider the following pairs:



1. Bandarpunch


2. Bara Shigri


3. Milam


4. Siachen


5. Zemu



Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A.  1, 2 and 4

B. 1, 3 and 4

C.   2 and 5

D. 3 and 5


99. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

A.  Pesticides in agriculture

B. Preservatives in processed foods

C. Fruit-ripening agents

D. Moisturizing agents in cosmetics


100. Consider the following statements:

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.

2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.

3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3



Prelims Paper- 1 (2018)

1. Consider the following statements:

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.

2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.

3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 A. 1 and 3 only

 B. 2 only

 C.2 and 3 only

 D. 2 and 3


2. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhabit water loss?

1. Hard and waxy leaves

2. Tiny leaves

3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


3. As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agriculture Households”, consider the following statements:

1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agriculture households among its rural households.

2. Out of the total households in the country, a little over 60 percent being to OBCs.

3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agriculture households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agriculture activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


4. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.

2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


5. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


6. Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news?

A. The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.

B. The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for ?nancial transactions for purchasing goods or services.

C. The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.

D.  The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.


7.  What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?

1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.

2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


8. With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act that offers advertisement services in India.

2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in Indian can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1nor 2


9. Consider the following statements:

1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combineD.  government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.

2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.

3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


10. Consider the following statements:

1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.

2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


11.  He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was

A. Aurobindo Ghosh

B. Bipin Chandra Pal

C. Lala Lajpat Rai

D. Motilal Nehru


12.  Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.

2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


13. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?

1. Aral Sea

2. Black Sea

3. Lake Baikal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1 and 3


14. “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?

1. Amnesty International

2. International Court of Justice

3. The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights

4. World Justice Project


15. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India ?

1. Indian Banks’ Association

2. National Securities Depository Limited

3. National Payments Corporation of India

4. Reserve Bank of India


16. Consider the following statements:

1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR. is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if any account-holders fail to repay dues.

2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


17. The identity platform ‘Aadhaar‘provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?

1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.

2. Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


18. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

1. Angola and Zambia

2. Morocco  Tunisia

3. Venezuela and Colombia

4. Yemen and South Sudan


19. Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?

1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.

2. Establishment of universities was recommended.

3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


20. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws etc. conferred by the constitution of delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

A. Committee on Government Assurances

B. Committee on Subordinate Legislation

C. Rules Committee

D. Business Advisory Committee


21. Consider the following statements:

1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum quali?cation laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.

2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.

3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3

D. 3 only


22. Consider the following pairs:

           Tradition State                         State

1. Chapchar Kut festival                Mizoram

2. Khonom Parba ballad                Manipur

3.Thang-Ta dance                         Sikkim

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B 1 and 2

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3


23. Consider the following statements:

1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.

2. The Food Safety and Standard Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


24. The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

A. China

B. Israel

C. Iraq

D. Yemen


25. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.

2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.

3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 1and 3

D. 3 only


26. India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to






27. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.

2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.

3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3

D. 3 only


28. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.

2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


29.  Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

A. Bengaluru

B. Hyderabad

C. Nagpur

D. Pune


30. International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to

A. Child labour

B. Adaptation of agriculture practices to global climate change

C. Regulation of food prices and food security

D. Gender parity at the workplace


31. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

A.  A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.

B.  A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.

C.  A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.

D.  A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.


32. With reference to the  election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.

2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Loksabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajyasabha

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


33. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?

A.  The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

B. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA

C. The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).

D.  The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.


34. Consider the following countries:

1. Australia

2. Canada

3. China

4. India

5. Japan

6. USA

Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN ?

A.  1, 2, 4 and 5

B.  3, 4, 5 and 6

C.  1, 3, 4 and 5

D.  2, 3, 4 and 6


35. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.

2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.

3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A.  1 and 3 only

B.  2 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


36. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?

1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.

2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.

3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  3 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


37. Consider the following pairs :

Towns sometimes mentioned in news                Country

1. Aleppo                                                             Syria

2. Kirkuk                                                              Yemen

3. Mosul                                                               Palestine

4. Mazar-i-sharif                                                 Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A.  1 and 2

B.  1 and 4

C.  2 and3

D.  3 and 4


38. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

A. Federal Legislature

B.  Governor General

C. Provincial Legislature

D.  Provincial Governors


39. Consider the following statements :

1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.

2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A.  1 only

B. 2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


40. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty ?

A.  If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

B.  If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

C.  If there is liberty laws have to be made by the people.

D.  If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.


41. Consider the following statements :

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.

2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


42. The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the

A.  Bundi school

B.  Jaipur school

C.  Kangra school

D.  Kishangarh school.


43. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?

A.  An Israeli radar system

B.  India’s indigenous anti-missile programme

C. An American anti-missile system

D.   A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea


44. With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lor Krishna.

2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.

3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.

4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B.  2 and 4 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D.  2, 3 and 4


45. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?

1. Limitation of powers

2. Equality before law

3. People’s responsibility to the Government

4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A.  1 and 3 only

B.  2 and 4 only

C.  1, 2 and 4 only

D.  1, 2, 3 and 4


46. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

A.  The money which is tende ed in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases

B.  The money which a creditor  is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims

C.  The bank money in the form of cheques drafts, bills of exchange, etc.

D.  The metallic money in circulation in a country


47. If a commodity is provided free to the public 1, by the Government, then
A.  the opportunity cost is zero.

B.  the opportunity cost is ignored.

C.  the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.

D.  the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the. product to the Government.


48. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

A.  industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.

B.  agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.

C.  poverty and unemployme crease.

D.  imports grow faster than exports.


49. Consider the following statements:

Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.

2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities the people of the country.

3. accumulation of tangible wealth.

4. accumulation of intangible wealth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 4

D.  1, 3 and 4


50. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

A.  weak administrative machinery

B.  illiteracy

C.  high population density

D.  high capital-outputs ratio


51) After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?

1. The territories called `Santhal Paraganas’ were created.

2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


52. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the

A.  increase in the export of Indian handicrafts

B.  growth in the number of Indian owned factories

C.  commercialization of Indian agriculture

D.  rapid increase in the urban population


53. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

A.  the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

B.  the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

C.  Article 19 is suspended in that State.

D.  the President can make laws relating to that State.


54. Consider the following pairs :

Craft                                                        Heritage of

1. Puthukkuli shawls                               Tamil Nadu

2. Sujni embroidery                                 Maharashtra

3. Uppada Jamdani saris                        Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  1 and 2

C.  3 only

D.  2 and 3


55. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used ?

1. Mobile phone operations

2. Banking operations

3. Controlling the power grids

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


56. Consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.

2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.

3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  3 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


57. Consider the following statements :

1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.

2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.

3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


58. The terms WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

A.  Exoplanets

B.  Cryptocurrency

C.  Cyber attacks

D.  Mini satellites


59. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture ?

1. Avoiding the monoculture practices

2. Adopting minimum tillage

3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops

4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface

5. Adopting spatial and temporal rop sequencing/crop rotations.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A.  1, 3 and 4

B.  2, 3, 4 and 5

C.  2, 4 and 5

D.  1, 2, 3 and 5


60. The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

A.  Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.

B.  Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.

C.  Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.

D.  ankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.


61. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements :

1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.

2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.

3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  1 and 2 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.  None


62. Consider the following phenomena :

1. Light is affected by gravity.

2. The Universe is constantly expanding.

3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.

Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


63. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard.  developed in India, consider the following statements :

1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.

2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.

3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agric It al University.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B.  2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 1, 2 and 3


64. Consider the following pairs :

Terms sometimes seen in news                    Context /Topic

1. Belle II experiment                                Artificial Intelligence

2. Blockchain technology                          Digital/ Cryptocurrency

3. CRISPR — Cas9                                  Particle Physics

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A.  1 and 3 only

B.  2 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


65. Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?

A.  Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

B.  Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

C.  Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

D.  Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.


66. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step’ out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.

In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?

A. Border Gateway Protocol

B.  Internet of Things

C.  Internet Protocol

D.  Virtual Private Network


67. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements :

1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.

2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.  1 only

B.   2 only

C.   Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


68. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were

A.  Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium

B.  Sugar, salt, zinc and lead

C.  Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea

D.  Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium


69. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha ?

A.  Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement

B.  Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement

C.  Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement

D.  Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops


70. Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948 ?

A.  B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George

B.  Jayaprakash Narayan, De Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy

C.  C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu

D.  Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta


71. With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to

A. Buddhism

B.  Jainism

C.  Vaishnavism

D.  Shaivism


72. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements :

1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.

2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


73. Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?

A.  Francois Bernier

B.  Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

C.  Jean de Thevenot

D.  Abbe Barthelemy Carre


74. With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

A.  Avalokiteshvara

B.  Lokesvara

C.  Maitreya

D.  Padmapani


75. Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

A.  To maintain a large standing army at other’s expense

B.  To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger

C.  To secure a ?xed income for the Company

D.  To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States


76. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?

1. Charter Act of 1813

2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823

3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  2 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1,2 and3


77. Which one of the following is an ‘artificial lake‘?

A.  Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

B.  Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

C.  Nainital (UttarakhanD.

D.  Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)


78. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.

3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 and 3 only

B.  2 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


79. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?

A.  All India Home Rule League

B.   Hindu Mahasabha

C.   South Indian Liberal Federation

D.  The Servants of India Society


80. Which among the following events happened earliest?

A.  Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.

B.  Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan

C.  Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.

D.  Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.


81. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

1. Decreased salinity in the river

2. Pollution of groundwater

3. Lowering of the water-table

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A.  1 only

B.   2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3


82. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements :

1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.

2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.

3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.  1 and 2 only

B.   3 only

C.   1 and 3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3


83. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

A.  The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg

B.  The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro

C.  The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris

D.  The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi


84. “3D printing” has applications in which of the following?

1. Preparation of confectionery items

2. Manufacture of bionic ears

3. Automotive industry

4. Reconstructive surgeries

5. Data processing technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.  1, 3 and 4 only

B.  2, 3 and 5 only

C.  1 and 4 only

D.  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


85. Consider the following statements:

1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.

2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.

3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3

C.  3 only

D.  1 and 3


86. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

A.  Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.

B.  It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

C.  Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.

D.  None of the above


87. Consider the following statements:

1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.

2. More than one—third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.

3. Coral reefs host far a greater number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


88. “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

A.  The Intergovernmental panel on Climate Change

B.  The UNEP Secretariat

C.  The UNFCCC Secretariat

D.  The World Meteorological Organization


89. With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:

      Institution                                                     Founder

1. Sanskrit College at Benaras                William Jones

2. Calcutta Madarsa                                 Warren Hastings

3. Fort William Arthur College                  Wellesley

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

A.  1 and 2

B.  2 only

C.  1 and 3

D.  3 only


90. Consider the following pairs:

Regions sometimes mentioned in news Country

1. Catalonia       Spain

2. Crimea           Hungary

3. Mindanao       Philippines

4. Oromia           Nigeria

Which of the pairs given, above are correctly matched?

A.  1, 2 and 3

B.  3 and 4 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  2 and 4 only


91. Consider the following events:

1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.

2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.

3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.

4. Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

A.  4-1-2-3

B.  3-2-1-4

C.  4-2-1-3

D.  3-1-2-4


92. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

A.  Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution

B.  Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV

C.  Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

D.  Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution


93. Consider the following:

1. Areca nut

2. Barley

3. Coffee

4. Finger millet

5. Groundnut

6. Sesamum


The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?

A.  1, 2, 3 and 7 only

B.  2, 4, 5 and 6 only

C.  1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

D.  1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7


94. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

A.  Arunachal Pradesh

B.  Manipur

C.  Meghalaya

D.  Nagaland


95. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.

2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.

3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3

C.  1 and 2

D.  3 only


96. With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:

1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

2. To put the public sector banks order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


97. Consider the following items:

1. Cereal grains hulled

2. Chicken eggs cooked

3. Fish processed and canned

4. Newspapers containing advertising material

Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1, 2 and 4 only

D.  1, 2, 3 and 4

98. Consider the following statements:

1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.

2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.

3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


99. Consider the following:

1. Birds

2. Dust blowing

3. Rain

4. Wind blowing

Which of the above spread plant diseases?

A.  1 and 3 only

B.  3 and 4 only

C.  1, 2 and 4 only

D.  1, 2, 3 and 4


100. With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

1. ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and‘ directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.

2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.

3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


                                                  Prelims Paper - 1  (2017)


1. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


2. With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of 
Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 only
B.  2 and 3 only
C.  1 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


3. Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to
A.  Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.
B.  Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.
C.  Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.
D.  Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.


4. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
A.  Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
B.  Nallamala Forest
C.  Nagarhole National Park
D.  Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve


5. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
A.  Privileges
B.  Restraints
C.  Competition
D.  Ideology


6. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):

1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


7. Which principle among the ‘following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
A.  Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
B.  Participation of workers in the management of industries

C.  Right to work, education and public assistance
D.  Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers


8. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A.  Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
B.  Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
C.  Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
D.  Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.


9. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?
A.  World Economic Forum

B.  UN Human Rights Council
C.  UN Women
D.  World Health Organization


10. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.
2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 and 3 only
B.  2 only
C.  3 only
D.  2 and 3 only


11. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 only
B.  1 and 2 only
C.  3 only
D.  2 and 3 only


12. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:

1. It is a song and dance performance.
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1, 2 and 3.
B.  1 and 3 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  1 only


13. Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?

1. Lord Cornwallis
2. Alexander Read
3. Thomas Munro

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 only
B.  1 and 3 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


14. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?

1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 only
B.  2 and 3 only
C.  1 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


15. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for
A.  the participation of workers in the management of industries.
B.  arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.
C.  an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.
D.  a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.


16. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
A.  Federalism
B.  Democratic decentralisation
C.  Administrative delegation
D.  Direct democracy


17. Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policyconstitute limitations upon

1. legislative function.
2. executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


18. The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to
C.  EU
D.  G20


19, At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at
A.  Bhavnagar
B.  Bheemunipatnam
C.  Chandipur
D.  Nagapattinam.


20. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:

1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties heldbenami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism. Which of the statements .given above is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  1 and 3 only
D.  2 and 3 only


21. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?

1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 only
B.  2 and 3 only
C.  1 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


22. It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?

1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 and 2 only
B.  2 and 3 only
C.  3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


23. Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’?

1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.

4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 and 2 only
B.  1, 2 and 3 only
C.  1, 2 and 4 only
D.  3 and 4 only


24. Consider the following statements:

1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India.

 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


25. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?

1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 and 2 only
B.  3 only
C.  1 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


26. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to?
A.  Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
B.  Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
C.  Impose censorship on national press.
D.  Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.


27. The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to
A.  Developing solar power production in our country
B.  Granting licences to foreign T.V. channels in our country
C.  Exporting our food products to other countries
D.  Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country


28. Consider the following statements:

1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


29. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?
A.  Resident Indian citizens only
B.  Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
C.  All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
D.  All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1St April, 2004


30. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:

1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 and 3 only
B.  2 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


31. Consider the following statements:

1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


32. Consider the following statements:

1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


33. What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?

1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


34. With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:

1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


35. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?

1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wildbuffalo

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 only
B.  2 and 3 only
C.  1 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


36. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


37. Consider the following pairs:

1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian Association
2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty —Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
3. Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian Association

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
A.  1 only
B.  1 and 3 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


38. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
A.  Liberty of thought
B.  Economic liberty
C.  Liberty of expression
D.  Liberty of belief


39. With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:

1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


40. What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?

1. To supply credit to small business units
2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 and 2 only
B.  2 and 3 only
C.  1 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


41. With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements:

1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.
2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


42. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
A.  the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
B.  the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
C.  a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
D.  a band of dedicated party workers.


43. Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?
A.  Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
B.  Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.
C.  FDI inflows will drastically increase.
D.  Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.


44. The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, `String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of
A.  Observation and understanding of the Universe
B.  Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
C.  Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
D.  Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth


45. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of `genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?

1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 only
B.  2 and 3 only
C.  1 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


46. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
A.  the executive and legislature work independently.
B.  it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
C.  the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
D.  the head of the government cannot be changed without election.


47. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
A.  Rights are correlative with Duties.
B.  Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
C.  Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
D.  Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.


48. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
A.  The Preamble
B.  The Fundamental Rights
C.  The Directive Principles of State Policy
D.  The Fundamental Duties


49. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?
A.  6
B.  7
C.  8
D.  9


50. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 only
B.  2 and 3 only
C.  1 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


51. Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?
A.  Kakinada
B.  Motupalli
C.  Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
D.  Nelluru


52. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 and 2 only
B.  3 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


53. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


54. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon

4. Syria

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1, 2 and 3 only
B.  2 and 3 only
C.  3 and 4 only
D.  1, 3 and 4 only


55. With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crore at present.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


56. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an
A.  ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
B.  World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
C.  Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
D.  UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.


57. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
A.  anyone residing in India.
B.  a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
C.  any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
D.  any citizen of India.


58. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 and 2 only
B.  3 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  1 and 3 only


59. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for
A.  Measuring oxygen levels in blood
B.  Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
C.  Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
D.  Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions


60. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?

1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1, 2 and 3
B.  1 and 3 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  1 only


61. With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.
2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


62. In the context of Indian history, the principle of “Dyarchy (diarchy)” refers to
A.  Division of the central legislature into two houses.
B.  Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.
C.  Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
D.  Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.


63. Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’:

1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


64. Which of the following statements best k describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?
A.  It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
B.  It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
C.  It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
D.  It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government.


65. Consider the following statements:

1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


66. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


67. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
A.  Bhitarkanika Mangroves
B.  Chambal River
C.  Pulicat Lake
D.  Deepor Beel


68. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):

1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


69. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at
A.  Ajanta
B.  Badami
C.  Bagh
D.  Ellora


70. Consider the following pairs:

Traditions- Communities

1. Chaliha Sahib Festival- Sindhis
2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra- Gonds
3. Wari-Warkari- Santhals

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
A.  1 only
B.  2 and 3 only
C.  1 and 3 only
D.  None of the above


71. Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture? ‎

‎1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land ‎

2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field ‎

‎3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field ‎

Select the correct answer using the code given below : ‎
A.  1 and 2 only

‎B.  3 only

‎C.  1 and 3 only

‎D.  1, 2 and 3


72. Consider the following statements :

The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at

1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.  1 and 2 only
B.  3 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


73. Consider the following pairs:

Commonly used material vs. Unwanted or controversial chemicals found in them

1. Lipstick: Lead
2. Soft drinks: Brominated vegetable oils
3. Chinese C: Monosodium glutamate

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A.  1 only
B.  2 and 3 only
C.  1 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


74. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?

1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.
3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below
A.  1 and 3 only
B.  2 only
C.  1, 2 and 3
D.  None of the above statements is correct


75. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?

1. Arasavalli
2. Amarakantak
3. Omkareshwar

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A.  1 only
B.  2 and 3 only
C.  1 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


76. Consider the following statements:

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


77. Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?

1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
3. FDI inflows increased.

4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A.  1 and 4 only
B.  2, 3 and 4 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  1, 2, 3 and 4


78. What is the application of Somatic Cell CJ Nuclear Transfer Technology?
A.  Production of biolarvicides
B.  Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
C.  Reproductive cloning of animals
D.  Production of organisms free of diseases



79. Consider the following statements:

1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.
2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


80. The term M-STRIPES’ is sometimes seen in V the news in the context of
A.  Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
B.  Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
C.  Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
D.  Security of National Highways


81. What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?

1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 only
B.  2 and 3 only
C.  1 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


82. ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and
A.  European Union
B.  Gulf Cooperation Council
C.  Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
D.  Shanghai Cooperation Organization


83. Consider the following statements:

1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
3. TFA came into force in January 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 and 2 only
B.  1 and 3 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


84. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?
A.  India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.
B.  India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
C.  India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
D.  Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.


85. In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?

1. Service providers
2. Data centres
3. Body corporate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 only
B.  1 and 2 only
C.  3 only
D.  1, 2 and 3


86. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
A.  Fundamental Right
B.  Natural Right
C.  Constitutional Right
D.  Legal Right


87. What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project?
A.  To detect neutrinos
B.  To detect gravitational waves
C.  To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
D.  To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems


88. What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana’?

1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.
2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  2 only
B.  3 only
C.  1 and 2 only
D.  2 and 3 only


89. What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?
A.  Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government’s education system and local communities.
B.  Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
C.  Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.
D.  Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.


90. Consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 and 2 only
B.  2 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  3 only


91. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?
A.  It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
B.  It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
C.  It is endemic to a particular region of India.
D.  Both B.  and C.  stated above are correct in this context.


92. In India, Judicial Review implies
A.  the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
B.  the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
C.  the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
D.  the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.


93. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:

1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
2. Quit India Movement launched
3. Second Round Table Conference

What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
A.  1-2-3
B.  2-1-3
C.  3-2-1
D.  3-1-2


94. Consider the following statements :

1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


95. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?
A.  Corbett National Park
B.  Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
C.  Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
D.  Sariska National Park


96. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1 and 2 only
B.  1 and 3 only
C.  2 and 3 only
D.  1, 2and 3


97. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities

4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.  1, 2 and 4 only
B.  2, 3 and 4 only
C.  1 and 4 only
D.  1, 2, 3 and 4


98. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar ?
A.  Sumatra
B.  Borneo
C.  Java
D.  Sri Lanka


99. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
A.  An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
B.  A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
C.  A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
D.  A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.


100. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
A.  There is an independent judiciary in India.
B.  Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
C.  The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
D.  It is the result of an agreement among the federating units 7.


                                    Prelims Paper - 1 (2016)

1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation

2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


2.Which of the following is/are the indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the ‘Global Hunger Index Report’?

1. Undernourishment

2. Child stunting

3. Child mortality

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1, 2 and 3

D.  1 and 3 only


3. There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the Government to reduce the deficit?

1. Reducing revenue expenditure

2. Introducing new welfare schemes

3. Rationalizing subsidies

4. Reducing import duty

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2, 3 and 4


4. The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?

1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of payment Banks

2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards.

3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  1 and 3 only

C.  2 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


5. With reference to ‘LiFi’, recently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It uses light as the medium for high-speed data transmission.

2. It is a wireless technology and is several times faster than ‘WiFi’.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


6. The term ‘Intended Nationally determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

A.  Pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees form the war-affected Middle East

B.  Plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change.

C.  Capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of Asian infrastructure investment Bank

D.  Plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding sustainable development Goals


7. Which of the of the following is a purpose of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the Government?

A.  Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy

B.  Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2018

C.  Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time

D.  Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies



8. With reference to ‘IFC Masala Bonds,’ sometimes seen in the news, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank

2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sector.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


9.Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements:

1. The Tax rate on land was fixed depending on the quality of the land.

2. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


10.Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the of founder of Sunga dynasty?

A.  Swapnavasavadatta

B.  Malavikagnimitra

C.  Meghadoota

D.  Ratnavali


11.In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms ‘amber box, blue and green box’ in the news?

A.  WTO affairs

B. SAARC affairs

C.  UNFCCC affairs

D.  India-EU negotiations on FTA


12.Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India?

1. Expenditure on acquisition of the assets like roads, buildings, machinery etc.

2. Loans received from foreign governments

3. Loans and advances granted to the states and Union Territories

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


13.Which is/are the importance/importance’s of the ‘United Nations Convention to combat desertification’?

1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive international partnerships

2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of major portion of financial resources to these regions

3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


14.Recently, which one of the following currencies has been proposed to be added to the basket of IMF’s SDR?

A.  Rouble

B.  Rand

C.  Indian Rupee

D.  Renminbi


15. With reference to the International monetary and Financial committee (IMFC), consider the following statements:

1.IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy, and advises the international monetary fund (IMF) on the direction of the work.

The world Bank participate as observer in IMFC’s meetings

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


16. ‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan’ is a national campaign to

A.  Rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood

B.  Release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood

C.  Eradicate the practice of manual scavenging the rehabilitate the manual scavengers

D.  Release the bonded laborers from their bondage and rehabilitate them


17. With reference to the cultural history of medieval India, consider the following

1. Siddhas (Sittars) of Tamil region were monotheistic and condemned idolatry.

2. Linguists of Kannada region questioned the theory of rebirth and rejected the caste hierarchy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


18.Which of the following best describes the term ‘Import cover’, sometimes seen in the news?

A.  It is the ratio of value of imports to the Gross Domestic product of a country

B.  It is the total value of imports of a country in a year

C.  It is the ratio between the value of exports and that of imports between two countries

D.  It is the number of months of imports that could be paid for by a country international reserves


19. Consider the hollowing pairs:

Community sometimes mentioned in the news

In the affairs of

1. Kurd


2. Madhesi






Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A.  1 and 2

B.  2 only

C.  2 and 3

D.  3 only


20. With reference to ‘Organisation for prohibition of chemical weapons (OPCW)’ consider the following statements:

1. It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO.

2. It monitors chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging.

3. It provides assistance and protection to states (Parties) against chemical weapons threats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


21. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana,’ Consider the following statements:

1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of two percent for any crop they cultivate in any season of the year.

2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


22.In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian hornbill’ in its natural habitat?

A.  Sand deserts of Northwest India

B.  Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir

C.  Salt marshes of western Gujarat

D.  Western Ghats.


23.Which of the following are the key features of National Ganga river basin authority (NGRBA)?

River basin is the unit of planning and management.

It spearheads the river conservation efforts at the national level.

One of the Chief Ministers of the states through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on rotation basis.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


24.Why does the Government of India promote the use of ‘Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture?

A.  Release of neem oil in thesoil increases nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms

B.  Neem coating slows down the rate of dissolution of urea in the soil

C.  Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is not at all released into atmosphere by crop fields

D.  It is a combination of a weedicide side a fertilizer for particular crops


25. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Secretary in a state is appointed by the governor of that state.

2. The Chief Secretary in a state has a fixed tenure

Which of the statements given above is/are correct:

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


26. With reference to ‘Stand UP India scheme, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.

2. It provides for refinance through SIDBI

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


27.The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally’ Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative?

1. To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods and financial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity

2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated landscapes, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local communities

3. To provide Geographical indication status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such identified GIAHS

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1 and 3 only

B.  2 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3

28.Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?

1. Dibang

2. Kameng

3. Lohit

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


29. The term ‘Core Banking solution’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statements best describes/describe this term?

1. IT is a networking of a bank’s branches which enables customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank on its network regardless of where they open their accounts.

2. It is an effort to increase RBI’s control over commercial banks through computerization

3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non-performing asserts is taken over by another banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


30. Consider the following pairs:

  Term sometimes                                    Their origin

1 .Annex-I countries                          : Cartagena Protocol

2. Certified Emissions Reductions    : Nagoya Protocol

3. Clean development Mechanism   : Kyoto Protocol

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3



31.In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics, the term ‘transcriptome,’ sometimes seen in the news, refers to

A.  a range of enzymes used in genome editing

B.  The full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism

C.  The description of the mechanism of gene expression

D.  a mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in cells



32. ‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the government of India pertains to

A.  Immunization of children and pregnant women

B.  Construction of smart cities across the country

C.  India’s own search for the Earth-like planets in outer space

D.  New Educational Polity



33.Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India?

1.Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and state budgets thereby implementing the ‘Green accounting’

2.Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future

3.Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


34. With reference to pre-packaged items in India. It is mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the food safety and standards (packaging and labelling regulations, 2011?

1. List of ingredients including additives

2. Nutrition information

3. Recommendations, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions


Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  1, 2 and 3

B.  2, 3 and 4

C.  1, 2 and 4

D.  1 and 4 only


35. ‘Project loon’, Sometimes seen in the news, is related to

A.  Waste management technology

B.  Wireless communication technology

C.  Solar power production technology

D.  Water conservation technology


36. ‘Net Metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting the

A.  Production and use of solar energy by the households/consumers

B.  use of piped natural gas in the kitchens of households

C.  Installation of CNG kits in motor-cars

D.  Installation of water meters in urban households


37. India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of doing’ business index is sometimes seen in the news.  Which of the following has declared that ranking?

A.  Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

B.  World Economic Forum

C.  World Bank

D.  World Trade Organization (WTO)


38.  Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian history were generally

A.  Agriculturists

B. warriors

C.  weavers

D.  traders


39.Who of the following had first deciphered the edicts of Emperor Ashoka?

A.  Georg Buhler

B.  James Prinsep

C.  Max Muller

D.  William Jones


40. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act,’ Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. As per the Act, gram Nayayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.

2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


41.  With reference to the Trans-Pacific Partnership, consider the following statements:

1. It is an agreement among all the Pacific Rim countries except China and Russia.

2. It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime security only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


42.Consider the following statements:

1. The India-Africa Summit

2. Held in 2015 was the third such Summit

3. Was actually initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2

43.What is/are the purpose/purposes of the ‘Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI?

1. These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances.

2. These guidelines help ensure availability of bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2

44.What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’, a breed found in India?

1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in seawater.

2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.

3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3



45.Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and distinct species of banana plant which attains a height of about 11 metres and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which part of India has it been discovered?

A.  Andaman Islands

B.  Anaimalai Forests

C.  Maikala Hills

D.  Tropical rain forests of northeast


46. Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently?

A.  Amphibious warfare ship

B.  Nuclear-powered submarine

C.  Torpedo launch and recovery vessel

D.  Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

47. What is ‘Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10)’, recently in the news?

A.  Electric plane tested by NASA

B.  Solar-powered two-seater aircraft designed by Japan

C.  Space observatory launched by China

D.  Reusable rocket designed by ISRO

48.With reference to ‘Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies, and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with cluster approach.

2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers have larger stake in this scheme.

3. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and micro-irrigation equipment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 2 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


49. The ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ were adopted as methods of struggle for the first time during the

A.  Agitation against the Partition of Bengal

B.  Home Rule Movement

C.  Non-Cooperation Movement

D.  visit of the Simon Commission to India

50.With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

1. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to Hinayana sect of Buddhism.

2. Bodhisattva is a compassionate one on his way to enlightenment.

3. Bodhisattva delays achieving his own salvation to help all sentient beings on their path to it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  2 only

D.  1, 2 and 3

51.‘Doctors without Borders (Medicines Sans Frontiers)’ often in the news, is

A.  a division of World health Organization

B. a non-governmental international organization

C.  an inter-governmental agency sponsored by European Union

D.  a specialized agency of the United Nations


52.  With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum.

2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.

3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  3 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3

53.With reference to Red Sanders sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a tree species found in a part of south India

2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rain forest areas of south India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


54.Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to Protection of Biodiversity

2. Resilience of forest ecosystems

3. Poverty reduction

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  3 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


55.What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’?

A.  It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions

B.  It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies

C.  It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022

D.  It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank


56. With reference to ‘Financial stability and Development Council’, Consider the following statements:

1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog

2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.

3. It monitors macroprudential super-vision of the economy

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  3 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


57. With reference to ‘Agenda 21,’ sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a global action plan for sustainable Development

2. It originated in the World Summit on sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


58. Satya Sodhak Samaj organized

A. a movement for upliftment of tribal in Bihar

B. a temple entry movement in Gujarat

C.  An anti-caste movement in Maharashtra

D.  A peasant movement in Punjab


59. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Viruses can infect

2. Bacteria

3. Fungi

4. Plants

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


60The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit shifting is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

A.  Mining operation by multinational companies in resource-rich but backward areas

B.  Curbing of the thetax evasion by multinational companies

C.  Exploitation of genetic resources of the country by multinational companies

D.  Lack of consideration of en environmental costs in the planning and implementation of developmental projects


61. recently, India’s first national investment and Manufacturing Zone was proposed to be set up in

A.  Andhra Pradesh

B.  Gujarat

C.  Maharashtra

D.  Uttar Pradesh

62. What is/are the purpose/purposes of district mineral foundations in India?

1. Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich exploration districts

2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations

3. Authorizing state governments to issue licenses for mineral exploration

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  2 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


63.‘SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at

A.  Promoting the Self Help Groups in rural areas

B.  Providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs

C.  Promoting the education and health of adolescent girls

D.  Providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free.


64. The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to

A.  Social reforms

B.  Educational reforms

C.  Reforms in police administration

D.  Constitutional reforms

65. What is/are common to the two historical places known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram?

1. Both were built in the same period.

2. Both belong to the same religious denomination.

3. Both have rock-cut monuments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  None of the statements given above is correct


66. With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, Sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central banks of the countries.

2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive bitcoins from anyone else with a bitcoin address.

3. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the other

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A.  1 and 2 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


67. Consider the following statements:

1. New development Bank has been set up by APEC

2. The Headquarters of New Development Banks is in shanghai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


68. ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to

A.  Constitutional reforms

B.  Ganga Action plan

C.  Linking of rivers

D.  Protection of Western Ghats


69. Consider the following :

1. Calcutta Unitarian committee

2. Taberbacle of New dispensation

3. Indian reform association

Keshab Chandra sen is associated with the establishment of which of the above?

A.  1 and 3 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


70.Which of the following is not a member of Gulf cooperation council?

A.  Iran

B.  Saudi Arabia

C.  Oman

D.  Kuwait


71.What is/are the purpose/purposes of government’s sovereign gold bond scheme and gold monetization scheme?

1. To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households into the economy

2. To promote FDI in the gold and jeweler sector

3. To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


72. Belt and road initiative is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

A.  African Union

B.  Brazil

C.  European Union

D.  China


73. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA yojana is aimed at

A.  Bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal financial system

B.  Providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops

C.  Providing pensions to old and destitute persons

D.  Funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation


74. In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources  found?

1.Cambay Basin

2.Cauvery Basin

3.Krishna-Godavari Basin

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1 and  2  only

B.  3 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


75. ‘Global Financial Stability Report’ is prepared by the

A.  European Central Bank

B.  International Monetary Fund

C.  International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

D.  Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development


76. Regarding ‘Atal Pension Yojana’, which of the following statements is/ are correct?

1. It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers.

2. Only one member of a family can join the scheme.

3. Same amount of pension is guaranteed for the spouse for life after subscriber’s death.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


77. The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of agroup of countries known as

A.  G20





78. On which of the following can you find the Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star ‘Label?

1. Ceiling fans

2. Electric geysers

3. Tubular fluorescent lamps

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

A.  1 and 2

B.  3 only

C.  2 and 3

D.  1, 2 and 3


79. India is an important   member   of   the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this experiment succeeds, what is the immediate advantage for India?

A.  It can use thorium in place of uraniumfor power generation

B.  It   can attain aglobal rolein satellite navigation

C.  It can drastically improve the efficiency of its fission reactors in power generation

D.  It can build fusion reactors for power generation


80. In the context of the history of India, consider the following pairs:

Term                               Description

1.Eripatti Land     Revenue from which was set apart for the main­

  tenance of the village tank

2.Taniyurs         Villages donated to a single Brahmin or a group of     Brahmins

3.Ghatikas         Colleges generally   attached to the temples

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A.  1 and 2

B.  3 only

C.  2 and 3

D.  1 and 3 


81. Consider the following statements   :

1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.

2. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above  is/ are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor  2


82. ‘European Stability Mechanism’, sometimes seen  in  the  news,  is an

A.  agency created by EU  to  deal with the impact of millions of refugees arriving  from  Middle  East

B.   agency of EU that  provides financial assistance to eurozone countries

C.  agency of EU to  deal  with   all the bilateral and multilateral agreements  on  trade

D. agency of EU to deal with the conflicts arising among the member countries


83. Which of the following is/ are the vantage/ advantages of practising drip irrigation?

1. Reduction in weed

2. Reduction in soil salinity

3. Reduction in soil erosion

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1 and  2  only

B.  3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  None of the above is an advantage of practising  drip irrigation


84. Regarding ‘DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are  correct?

1. It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme.

2. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.   Neither 1 nor 2


85. Recently, linking of which of the following rivers was undertaken?

A.  Cauvery and Tungabhadra

B.  Godavari and Krishna

C.  Mahanadi and Sone

D.  Narmada and Tapti


86. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index?

1. Carbon dioxide

2. Carbon monoxide

3. Nitrogen dioxide

4. Sulphur dioxide

5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1, 2 and 3 only

B.  2, 3 and  4 only

C.  1, 4 and 5 only

D.  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


87. With reference to ‘Astrosat’, the  stronomical   observatory    launched by India, which of the following statements is/ are correct?

1. Other than USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space.

2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.   Neither 1 nor 2

88. With reference to the economic history of medieval India, the term ‘Araghatta’ refers to

A.  Bonded labour

B.  Land grants made to military officers

C.  Waterwheel used in  the  irrigation  of land

D.  Wasteland converted to cultivated land


89.  With reference to   the   cultural   history  of India, the memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories and epic tales was the profession  of who  of  the following?

A.  Shramana

B.  Parivraajaka

C.  Agrahaarika

D.   Maagadha


90. recently, for the first time in our country, which of the following States has declared a particular butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’?

A.  Arunachal Pradesh

B.  Himachal Pradesh

C.  Karnataka

D.  Maharashtra


91. Consider the following statements:

1. The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission

2. Made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA

3. Made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt

Which of the statements given   above is/are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


92. What  was  the  main  reason  for  the  split in the Indian National Congress at Surat  in  1907?

A.  Introduction of communalism into Indian politics by Lord Minto

B.  Extremists’ lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British

C.  Foundation of  Muslim  League

D.  Aurobindo Ghosh’sinability tobe elected as the President of the Indian National Congress


93. The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that after the Second World War

A.  India should be granted complete independence

B.  India should be partitioned into two before granting independence

C.  India should be made a republic with the condition that she will join the Commonwealth

D.  India should be given Dominion status


94. Consider the following pairs:

Famous place             Region

1.  Bdhyaya               Baghelkhand

2. Khajuraho             Baghelkhand

3. Shirdi                     Bundelkhand

4. Nasik (Nashik.       Vidarbha Tirupati Rayalaseema

Which   of   the   pairs   given   above   are correctly matched?

A.  1, 2 and 4

B.  2, 3, 4 and 5

C.  2 and 5 only

D.  1, 3, 4 and 5


95.  The   Parliament of   India   acquires the power  to  legislate  on  any  item  in  the State  List   in  the   national   interest  if resolution to that effect is passed by  the

A.  Lok Sabha by a simple majority its total membership

B.  LokSabha by amajority  ofless than two-thirds of its to membership

C.  Rajya Sabha by a simple majority its total membership the Commonwealth

D.  Rajya Sabha by a majority of less than two-thirds of its members present  and voting


96. Recently, which of the following States has explored the possibility of constructing   an   artificial   inland   port to be connected to sea by a long navigational   channel?

A.  Andhra Pradesh

B.  Chhattisgarh

C.  Karnataka

D. Rajasthan


97. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/ are correct?

1. The Agreement was signed by all  the member countries  of  the  UN and  it  will  go  into  effect  in 2017.

2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse gas emissions    so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this  century does not exceed  2 °C  or even 1•5 °C . Above pre-industrial levels.

3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.  1 and 3 only

B.  2 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3


98. Consider the following statements:

1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by   a   global   think   tank   called the- ‘Club of Rome’.

2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.  Neither 1 nor 2


99. A recent movie titled ‘The Man Who Knew Infinity’ is based on the biography of

A.  S.  Ramanujan

B.  S. Chandrasekhar

C.  S.  N.  Bose

D.  C.  V.  Raman


100. Consider the following statements

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.

2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A.  1 only

B.  2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


                                    Prelims Paper - 1 (2015)


1. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana has been launched for

A.  providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates

B.  Promoting women’s Self Help Groups in backward areas

C.  promoting financial inclusion in the country

D.  providing financial help to marginalised communities


2. With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent

2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants

A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
C.  Neither 1 nor 2


3. The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of:



4. A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?

1. Slowing economic growth rates
2. Less equitable distribution of national income


A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 and 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


5. In the South Atlantic and South Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?

A.  Sea Surface temperature are low*
B.  Inter Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
C.  Coriolis force is too weak
D.  Absence of land in those regions


6. Which of the following pairs of States of India indicates the eastern most and Western most State?

A.  Assam and Rajasthan
B.  Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
C.  Assam and Gujarat
D.  Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat


7. Consider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given below are correct?

A.  1 only
B.  2 only
C.  Both 1 & 2
D.  Neither 1 nor 2


8. In the Index of Eight Core Industries, which one of the following is given the highest weight?

1. Coal Production

2. Electricity generation

3. Fertilizer Production

4. Steel Production


9. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?

1. Bhitarkanika National Park

2. Keibul Lamjao National Park

3. Keoladeo Ghana National park

4. Sultanpur National park