Indian Polity

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    Syllabus Covered as per prescribed UPSC Syllabus
    Prescribed UPSC Syllabus Topics Covered Subtopics Covered( Theory, MCQs, Subjective Ques.)
    Indian Constitution- historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions, and basic structure Political Development in India, Constitution in Making, Features of Indian Constitution, Preamble of the Constitution, Union and its Territory, Citizenship (Part II: Article 5-11), Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Fundamental Duties, Amendment of the Constitution, Forms of Government

    Political Development in India: A Brief Historical Background, Company Rule (1773–1858), Crown Rule (1858–1947), Summary.  

    Constitution in Making: Introduction, Keywords of Preamble, Issues, and Significance. 

    Features of Indian Constitution: Constitution's Features, Sources of the Constitution, Schedules of the Constitution.

      Preamble of the Constitution: Constituent Assembly, Enactment and Enforcement. 

    Union and its Territory: Part I: Article 1 to 4, Evolution of Indian states and UT's.

    Citizenship (Part II: Article 5-11): Constitutional Provisions and Acts, Acquisition and Loss of Citizenship.

    Fundamental Rights:  Introduction & Salient Features, Article 12,  13, Right to Equality (Art. 14-18), Right to Freedom (Art. 19-22), Right against Exploitation (Art. 23-24), Right to freedom of religion(Art. 25-28), Cultural and  Educational Rights (Art. 29-30), Right to constitutional Remedies (Art.32), Writs, Armed Force and Martial Law (Art. 33-34), Doctrine of Basic Features/ FR's Amendment, Other issues related to FR's.

    Directive Principles of State Policy: Introduction & Salient Features, Classification (Social, Gandhian, Liberal), Conflict between DPSP & FR's, Other Issues with DPSP.

    Fundamental Duties: Introduction & List of Duties, Issues & Significance of Fundamental Duty.

    Amendment of the Constitution: Procedure and Type of Amendment, Various Majorities Required, Issues with Amendment, Basic Structure of the Constitution.

    Forms of Government: Parliamentary Form of Govt., Presidential Form of Government, Federal System, Unitary Form of Govt, Discussion on Indian Gov.

    Functions and responsibilities of the Union and the States, issues, and challenges pertaining to the federal structure, devolution of powers and finances up to local levels and challenges therein Center-state Relations, Inter-State Relations, Emergency Provisions, Panchayati Raj- Local Self Government, Municipalities- Local Urban Bodies

    Center-state Relations: Legislative Relation, Administrative Relation, Financial Relation, Issues with C-S Relation.

    Inter-State Relations: Inter-State Water Dispute & Trade, Inter-State Council, Public Acts, Records, Zonal Councils.

    Emergency Provisions: National Emergency, State Emergency, Financial Emergency, Issues related to Emergency and Summary.

    Panchayati Raj- Local Self Government: Evolution of Panchayati Raj, 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, Compulsory and Voluntary Provisions, PESA Act (1996), Issues.

    Municipalities- Local Urban Bodies: Evolution, 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, Types of Urban Local Bodies, Central Council of Local Govt.

    Separation of powers between various organs, disputes redressal mechanisms and institutions Organs of a Political State, Other Constitutional Dimensions

    Organs of a Political State: Executives, Legislature, Judiciary, Summary of above Organs.

    Other Constitutional Dimensions: Co-operative Societies, Official Language, Public Services, Tribunals

    Comparison of the Indian constitutional scheme with that of other countries Comparison of Indian Constitution Vs British Constitution, USA, Germany, Canada, Australia, Japan, South Africa Comparison of Indian Constitution Vs British Constitution, USA, Germany, Canada, Australia, Japan, South Africa
    Parliament and State Legislatures - structure, functioning, the conduct of business, powers & privileges, and issues arising out of these Parliament of India, State Legislatures, Committees, Scheduled and Tribal Areas, Union Territories, and Special Areas

    Parliament of India: Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha, presiding officer of Lok Sabha, presiding officer of Rajya Sabha, Parliamentary Proceedings, Legislative Procedure, Joint Sitting, Budget Procedure, Funds of India, Powers of Parliament, Lok Sabha-Rajya Sabha Comparing Powers, Other Issues.

    State Legislatures: Legislative Assembly & Council, Presiding officer of Leg. Assembly, Presiding officer of Leg. Council, Legislature Proceedings, Legislative Procedure, Comparing Assembly Vs. Council, Other Issues.

    Committees: Parliamentary Committees, Cabinet Committees, Parliamentary Forums, Parliamentary Group.

    Scheduled and Tribal Areas: Admin. of Scheduled Area, Admin. Of Tribal Areas.

    Union Territories and Special Areas: Creation and Administration, Delhi - Special Provisions, Advisory Committee of UT's.

    Structure, organization, and functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary Ministries and Departments of the Government; pressure groups and formal/informal associations and their role in the Polity Union Executives - President, Other Union Executive, State  Executive - Governor, Other State Executive, Judiciary

    Union Executives - President: Introduction, Executive Power, Legislative Power, Veto Power, Ordinance Making Power, Other Powers.

    Other Union Executive: Vice President, Prime Minister, Council of Minister, Attorney General of India.

    State  Executive - Governor: Introduction, Executive Power, Legislative Power, Veto Power, Other Powers. 

    Other State Executive: Chief Minister, State Council of Minister, Advocate General of India.

    Judiciary: Supreme Court, High Court, Subordinate Courts, Judicial Review, Judicial Activism, Public Interest Litigation, Lok Adalat.

    Salient features of the Representation of People's Act RPA 1950, 1951 RPA 1950, 1951: Various Provisions.
    Appointment to various Constitutional posts, powers, functions and responsibilities of various Constitutional Bodies Constitutional Bodies Constitutional Bodies: Election Commission, Electoral Process, Union Public Service Commission, State Public Service Commission, Finance Commission, National Commission for SCs, National Commission for STs, Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, Attorney General of India, Advocate General of the State, Issues Related to Electoral System, Summary.
    Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies Non-Constitutional Bodies Non-Constitutional Bodies: NITI Aayog, National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commission, Central Information Commission, State Information Commission, Central Vigilance Commission, Central Bureau of Investigation, Lokpal & Lokayukta, Summary, Joint State Public Service Commission.

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Syllabus for Prelims Exam ("Indian Polity" Highlighted Yellow)

Syllabus of PRELIMS Paper I (200 marks) Duration: 2 hours

  • Current events of national and international importance.

  • History of India and Indian National Movement Indian.

  • World Geography - Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World Indian

  • Polity and Governance - Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.

  • Economic and Social Development - Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector initiatives, etc.

  • General issues on Environmental Ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change - that do not require subject specialization

  • General Science.

Syllabus for Mains Exam ("Indian Polity" Highlighted Yellow)

CIVIL SERVICES MAINS EXAM

Syllabus for General Studies Paper -II : ( Polity, Governance, Social Justice and International relations): POLITY HIGHLIGHTED    

Total: 250 Marks, Duration: 3 Hrs   

POLITY

  • Indian Constitution- historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure.

  • Functions and responsibilities of the Union and the States, issues and challenges pertaining to the federal structure, devolution of powers and finances up to local levels and challenges therein.

  • Separation of powers between various organs dispute redressal mechanisms and institutions.

  • Comparison of the Indian constitutional scheme with that of other countries

  • Parliament and State Legislatures - structure, functioning, conduct of business, powers & privileges and issues arising out of these.

  • Structure, organization and functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary Ministries and Departments of the Government; pressure groups and formal/informal associations and their role in the Polity.

  • Salient features of the Representation of People's Act.

  • Appointment to various Constitutional posts, powers, functions and responsibilities of various Constitutional Bodies.

  • Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies

SOCIAL JUSTICE

  • Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.

  • Development processes and the development industry the role of NGOs, SHGs, various groups and associations, donors, charities, institutional and other stakeholders

  • Welfare schemes for vulnerable sections of the population by the Centre and States and the performance of these schemes; mechanisms, laws, institutions and bodies constituted for the protection and betterment of these vulnerable sections

  • Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health, Education, Human Resources.

  • Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health, Education, Human Resources, issues relating to poverty and hunger.

GOVERNANCE

  • Important aspects of governance, transparency and accountability, e-governance- applications, models, successes, limitations, and potential; citizens charters, transparency & accountability and institutional and other measures.

  • Role of civil services in a democracy.

INTERNATIONAL RELATION

  • India and its neighbourhood- relations.

  • Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India's interests

  • Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India's interests, Indian diaspora.

  • Important International institutions, agencies and fora, their structure, mandate.

Last 8 Year Prelims Question asked from Polity Subject (Year Wise)

Year : 2018 

Total No of Questions asked from Polity 11/100:

Total Marks allotted to Polity is 22 Marks / 200 Total Marks.

Q 1. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State then

(a)   The Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved

(b)   The powers of the legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament

(c)    Article 19 is suspended in that State

(d)    The President can make laws relating to that State

 

Q 2. Consider the following statements:

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.

2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in 1969.

3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 and 3 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 3. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 4. Consider the following statements:

1. The speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.

2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 5. Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.

2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 6. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

(a)  If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

(b)  If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

(c)  If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.

(d)  If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

 

Q 7. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?

1. Limitation of powers

2. Equality before law

3. People’s responsibility to the Government

4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 and 3 only

(b)  2 and 4 only

(c)  1, 2 and 4 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 8. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and report to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

(a)  Committee on Government Assurances

(b)  Committee on Subordinate Legislation

(c)  Rules Committee

(d)  Business Advisory Committee.

 

Q 9.  Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

(a)  Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution

(b)  Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV

(c)  Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

(d)  Article 21 and the provisions under the 44th amendment to the Constitution

 

Q 10.  Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statement is not correct?

(a)   A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provision relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration and regulation of any tax.

(b)  A Money bill has provision for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.

(c)   A Money bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

(d)  A Money bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

 

Q 11.  With reference to the Election of the President of India , consider the following statements:

1.  The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.

2.  The value of the Vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   1 only

(b)   2 only

(c)   Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

 

Year : 2017

Total No of Questions asked from Polity  22/100:

Total Marks allotted to Polity is 44 Marks / 200 Total Marks.

Q 1.  For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

(a)  Anyone residing in India.

(b)  A resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

(c)  Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

(d)  Any citizen of India.

 

Q 2. Consider the following statements:

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.

2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both l and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 3. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a:

(a)  Fundamental Right

(b)  Natural Right

(c)  Constitutional Right

(d)  Legal Right

 

Q 4. Consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.

3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  2only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  3 only

 

Q 5. In India, Judicial Review implies

(a)  The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b)   The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(c)  The power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.

(d)  The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

 

Q 6. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State?

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State

3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)   1 and 2only

(b)  1 and 3 only

(c)   2 and 3 only

(d)   1, 2 and 3

 

Q 7.Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

2. Abolition of untouchability

3. Protection of the interests of minorities

4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)   1, 2 and 4only

(b)   2, 3 and 4 only

(c)   1 and 4 only

(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 8. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

(a)  An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.

(b)  A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.

(c)  A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.

(d)  A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

 

Q 9.  Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

(a)  There is an independent judiciary in India.

(b)  Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.

(c)  The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

(d)  It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

 

Q 10.  Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.

2.  They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)   1 only

(b)   2 only

(c)   Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 11.Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India ?

(a)   Liberty of thought

(b)   Economic liberty

(c)   Liberty of expression

(d)   Liberty of belief

 

Q 12.   Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

(a)  The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

(b)  The methods for strengthening executive leadership.

(c)  A superior individual with dynamism and vision.

(d)  A band of dedicated party workers.

 

Q 13. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

(a)   The executive and legislature work independently.

(b)   It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

(c)   The executive remains responsible to the legislature.

(d)  The head of the government cannot be changed without election.

 

Q 14. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

(a)  Rights are correlative with Duties.

(b)  Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.

(c)  Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.

(d)  Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

 

Q 15. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

(a)  The Preamble

(b)  The Fundamental Rights

(c)  The Directive Principles of State Policy

(d)  The Fundamental Duties

 

Q 16. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

1. Adjournment motion

2. Question hour

3. Supplementary Questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 17. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :

a) . A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.

b) . Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 18. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

(a) Privileges

(b) Restraints

(c) Competition

(d) Ideology

 

Q 19.Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

(a)  Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(b)  Participation of workers in the management of industries

(c)  Right to work, education and public assistance

(d)  Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

 

Q 20.Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.

(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State. . -.

(c)  Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.

(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

 

Q 21 Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

(a)  Federalism

(b)  Democratic decentralization

(c)  Administrative delegation

(d)  Direct democracy

 

Q 22. Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

1. legislative function.

2. executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Year : 2016

Total No of Questions asked from Polity  5/100:

Total Marks allotted to Polity is 10 Marks / 200 Total Marks.

Q 1.Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a)  A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.

(b)  A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 2.Consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.

2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 3.With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil case and not criminal cases.

2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 4.The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

(a)   Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(b)  Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership

(c)   Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(d)  Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

 

Q 5. Consider the following statements:

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.

2. Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the reminder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Year : 2015

Total No of Questions asked from Polity  13/100:

Total Marks allotted to Polity is 26 Marks / 200 Total Marks.

Q 1. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

(a) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes.

(b) Determine the boundaries between States.

(c) Determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats.

(d) Protect the interests of all the border States.

 

Q 2.With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.

2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.

3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  2 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 3.Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

1. The President of India

2. The Prime Minister of India

3. The Lok Sabha Secretariat

4. He Supreme Court of India

 

Q 4.Consider the following statements:

1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.

2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 5. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

(a)  Preamble of the Constitution

(b)  Directive Principles of State Policy

(c)  Fundamental Rights

(d)  Fundamental Duties

 

Q 6. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

1. People’s participation in development

2. Political accountability

3. Democratic decentralization

4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1, 2 and 3

(b)  2 and 4

(c)  1 and 3

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 7. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

(a)  Preamble

(b)  Directive Principles of State Policy

(c)  Fundamental Rights

(d)  Seventh Schedule

 

Q 8.There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

(a)  Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people.

(b)  Parliament can amend the Constitution.

(c)  Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved.

(d)  Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha.

 

Q 9. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.

2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

 Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 10. Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.

2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.

3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  1 and 2 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 11. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

(a)  A simple majority of members present and voting.

(b)  Three-fourth majority of members present and voting.

(c)  Two-third majority of the Houses.

(d)  Absolute majority of the Houses.

 

Q 12. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the

(a)  Human Rights Commission

(b)  Finance Commission

(c)  Law Commission

(d)  Planning Commission

 

Q 13. Consider the following statements:

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.

2. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Year : 2014

Total No of Questions asked from Polity  10/100:

Total Marks allotted to Polity is 20 Marks / 200 Total Marks.

Q 1.Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

(a)  The Committee on Public Accounts

(b)  The Committee on Estimates

(c)  The Committee on Public Undertakings

(d)  The Committee on Petitions

 

Q 2. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

(a)  Second Schedule

(b)  Fifth Schedule

(c)  Eighth Schedule

(d ) Tenth Schedule

 

Q 3. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

(a)  Preamble to the Constitution

(b)  Directive Principles of State Policy

 (c)  Fundamental Duties

(d)  Ninth Schedule

 

Q 4.Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

1. The Finance Commission

2. The National Development Council

3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development

4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development

5. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code give below:

(a)  1, 2 and 5

(b)  1, 3 and 4

(c)  2 and 5

(d)  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

Q 5. Consider the following statements:  A Constitutional Government is one which

1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State authority.

2. Places effective restrictions on the authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 6.Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule.

2. Appointing the Ministers.

3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India.

4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 and 2

(b)  1 and 3

(c)  2, 3 and 4

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 7.Consider the following statements:

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.

2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 8.Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.

2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 9. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

(a)  Advisory jurisdiction

(b)  Appellate jurisdiction

(c)  Original jurisdiction

(d)  Writ jurisdiction

 

Q 10.The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

(a)  The President of India

(b)  The Parliament

(c)  The Chief Justice of India

(d)  The Law Commission

 

Year : 2013

Total No of Questions asked from Polity  17/100:

Total Marks allotted to Polity is 34Marks / 200 Total Marks.

Q 1. Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts

1. Consists of not more than 25 members of the Lok Sabha.

2. Scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government.

3. Examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 2. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.

2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.

3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  3 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 3.Consider the following statements:

1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.

2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.

3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 4.Consider the following statements:

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.

2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice-President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 5.With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:

1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.

2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmers and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 6.Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.

2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.

3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 7.Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?

1. The Prime Minister

2. The Chairman, Finance Commission

3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet

4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1, 2 and 3 only

(b)  1, 3 and 4 only

(c)  2 and 4 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 8.What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

(a)  The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.

(b)  The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further.

(c)  The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration.

(d)  The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill.

 

Q 9.Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a)  In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time.

(b)  The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.

(c)  No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post.

(d)  In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.

 

Q 10.Consider the following statements:

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.

2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 11.Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can

1. Take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha.

2. Be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha.

3. Speak in the Lok Sabha.

4. Vote in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 4

(c)  1, 2 and 3

(d)  1 and 3 only

 

Q 12. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

1. National Development Council

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Councils

 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)   1 and 2 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 13.The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

(a)  With the consent of all the States.

(b)  With the consent of the majority of States.

(c)  With the consent of the States concerned.

(d)  Without the consent of any State.

 

Q 14. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA)  Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

(a)  To provide self-governance.

(b)  To recognize traditional rights.

(c)  To create autonomous regions in tribal areas.

(d)  To free tribal people from exploitation.

 

Q 15.‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in

(a)  The Preamble and the Fundamental Rights.

(b)  The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy.

(c)  The Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy.

(d)  None of the above.

 

Q 16.According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

(a)  Fundamental Rights

(b)  Fundamental Duties

(c)  Directive Principles of State Policy

(d)  Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

 

Q 17.Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights)  Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

1. State Forest Department

2. District Collector/Deputy Commissioner

3. Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/ Mandal Revenue Officer

4. Gram Sabha

Year : 2012

Total No of Questions asked from Polity  20/100:

Total Marks allotted to Polity is 40 Marks / 200 Total Marks.

Q 1. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas)  Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.

2.  Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.

3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting license or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  1 and 2 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 2.In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a)  To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance.

(b)  To let opposition members, collect information from the ministers.

(c)  To allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant.

(d)  To postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members.

 

Q 3.The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. Right to healthy environment construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21.

2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1) .

3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243-A.

 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 4. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code.

2. Organizing village Panchayats.

3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas.

4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities.

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a)  1, 2 and 4 only 

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1, 3 and 4 only

(d)  1, 2 ,3 and 4

 

Q 5.Consider the following statements:

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.

2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.

3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  1 and 3

(d)  None

 

Q 6.With reference to consumer’s rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.

2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.

3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 7.Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.

2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.

3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  3 only

(c)  1, 2 and 3

(d)  None

 

Q 8.Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.

2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State.

3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory.

4. A dispute between two or more States.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 and 2

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  1 and 4

(d)  3 and 4

 

Q 9.Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

(a)  To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State.

(b)  To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services.

(c)  To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement.

(d)  To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners.

 

Q 10 . Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament.

2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill.

3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account.

4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office.

5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(b)  1, 2 and 4 only

(c)  3, 4 and 5 only

(d)  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

Q 11.Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1.Directive Principles of State Policy

2.Rural and Urban Local Bodies

3.Fifth Schedule

4.Sixth Schedule

5.Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  3, 4 and 5 only

(c)  1, 2 and 5 only

(d)  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

Q 12.In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) ?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.

2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmers by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.

3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.

4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1, 3 and 4 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 13.The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment

1. Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months.

2. Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months.

3. Must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament.

4. Must be a member of the Lok Sabha.

 

Q 14.With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.

2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot affect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 15.According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1.  The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission

2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee

3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General

4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 4 only

(c)  1, 3 and 4 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 16.A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of

1. Ordinary Legislation

2. Money Bill

3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 17.Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice.

3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry.

4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  1, 3 and 4 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 18.What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.

2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.

3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.

4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 and 3 only

(b)  3 and 4 only

(c)  4 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 19.Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?

1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design.

2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend.

3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 20.How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs)  help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?

1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.

2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.

3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmers.

4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1, 2 and 3 only

(b)  3 and 4 only

(c)  4 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Year : 2011

Total No of Questions asked from Polity  10/100:

 Total Marks allotted to Polity is 20 Marks / 200 Total Marks.

Q 1.The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment)  Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?

1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.

2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.

3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.

 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  1 and 2 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 2. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

(a)  The President of India

(b)  The Parliament of India

(c)  The Prime Minister of India

(d) The Union Finance Minister

 

Q 3. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the

(a)  Contingency Fund of India

(b)  Public Account

(c)  Consolidated Fund of India

(d) Deposits and Advances Fund

 

Q 4.When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,

(a) The Budget is modified and presented again.

(b) The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions.

(c) The Union Finance Minister is asked to resign.

(d) The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers.

 

Q 5.Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?

(a)  To vote in public elections.

(b)  To develop the scientific temper.

(c)  To safeguard public property.

(d)  To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals.

 

Q 6. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

(a)  It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development.

(b)  It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings.

(c)  It ensures transparency in financial administration.

(d)  None of the statements (a) , (b)  and (c)  given above is correct in this context.

 

Q 7. Consider the following statements: In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee

1.  Is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.

2.  Prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.

3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 8.What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?

1. The provision of a vote-on-account is used by a regular Government, while an interim budget is a provision used by a caretaker Government.

2. A vote-on-account only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an interim budget includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 9.In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?

1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.

2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.

3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 10.Consider the following:

1. Right to education

2. Right to equal access to public service

3. Right to food

Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?

(a)  1 only

(b)  1 and 2 only

(c)  3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

Last 8 Year Prelims Question asked from Polity Subject (Topic Wise)

 Previous Year Prelims Question Asked from Polity Subject (Topic Wise- 8 Year)  

 

Emergency

Q 1. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State then  

    (CSP Year 2018)

(a)  The Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved

(b)  The powers of the legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament

(c)  Article 19 is suspended in that State

(d)  The President can make laws relating to that State

 

Q 2. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State?        

(CSP Year 2017)

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State

3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)   l and 2only

(b)   1 and 3 only

(c)   2 and 3 only

(d)   1, 2 and 3

 

Parliament

Q 1. Consider the following statements:  

(CSP Year 2018)

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.

2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in 1969.

Parliament

3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   1 and 3 only

(b)   2 only

(c)   2 and 3 only

(d)   1, 2 and 3

 

Q 2.  Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statement is not correct?    

(CSP Year 2017)

(a)   A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provision relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration and regulation of any tax.

(b)   A Money bill has provision for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.

(c)    A Money bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

(d)   A Money bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

 

Q 3. Consider the following statements: 

(CSP Year 2017)

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning   candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.

2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   1 only

(b)   2 only

(c)   Both l and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 4. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

(CSP Year 2017)

1. Adjournment motion

2. Question hour

3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 5. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:     

(CSP Year 2017)

(a) A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.

(b) Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   1 only

(b)   2 only

(c)   Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(CSP Year 2016)

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.

2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)   1 only

(b)   2 only

(c)   Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 7 With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:      (CSP Year 2017)

1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.

2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.

3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)   1 and 2 only

(b)   2 and 3 only

(c)   2 only

(d)   1, 2 and 3

 

Q 8. Consider the following statements:  

(CSP Year 2015)

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.

2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.

3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)   1 only

(b)   1 and 2 only

(c)   2 and 3 only

(d)   1, 2 and 3

 

Q 9. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by    

(CSP Year 2015)

(a)   A simple majority of members present and voting.

(b)   Three-fourth majority of members present and voting.

(c)   Two-third majority of the Houses.

(d)   Absolute majority of the Houses.

 

Q 10. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

(CSP Year 2014)

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.

2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   1 only

(b)   2 only

(c)   Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 11. Consider the following statements:  

(CSP Year 2013) 

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.

2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice-President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   1 only

(b)   2 only

(c)   Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 12. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?             

(CSP Year 2013) 

(a)   The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.

(b)   The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further.

(c)   The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration.

(d)   The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill.

 

Q 13. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is   

(CSP Year 2012) 

(a)   To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance.

(b)   To let opposition members, collect information from the ministers.

(c)   To allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant.

(d)  To postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members.

 

Q 14. Consider the following statements:  

(CSP Year 2012)

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.

2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.

3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  1 and 3

(d)  None

 

Q 15. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:    

(CSP Year 2012)

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.

2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.

3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  3 only

(c)  1, 2 and 3

(d)  None

 

Q 16. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? 

(CSP Year 2012)

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament.

2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill.

3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account.

4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office.

5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(b)  1, 2 and 4 only

(c)  3, 4 and 5 only

(d)  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

Q 17. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?         

(CSP Year 2012)

(a)  To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State.

(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services.

(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement.

(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners.

 

Q 18. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of        

(CSP Year 2012)

1.Ordinary Legislation

2.Money Bill

3.Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 19. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,

(CSP Year 2011)

(a)  The Budget is modified and presented again.

(b)  The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions.

(c)  The Union Finance Minister is asked to resign.

(d)  The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers.

 

Q 20. What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?      

(CSP Year 2011)

1.The provision of a vote-on-account is used by a regular Government, while an interim budget is a provision used by a caretaker Government.

2.A vote-on-account only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an interim budget includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

Q 21. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

(CSP Year 2011)

(a) The President of India

(b) The Parliament of India

(c) The Prime Minister of India

(d) The Union Finance Minister

 

Q 22. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the  

(CSP Year 2011)

(a) Contingency Fund of India

(b) Public Account

(c) Consolidated Fund of India

(d) Deposits and Advances Fund

 

Schedules

Q 1. Consider the following statements:  

(CSP Year 2018)

1.The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2.The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 2. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to   

(CSP Year 2015)

(a)  Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes.

(b)  Determine the boundaries between States.

(c)  Determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats.

(d)  Protect the interests of all the Border States.

 

Q 3. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?          

(CSP Year 2014)

(a) Second Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(c) Eighth Schedule

(d) Tenth Schedule

 

Q 4. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? 

(CSP Year 2012)

1.Directive Principles of State Policy

2.Rural and Urban Local Bodies

3.Fifth Schedule

4.Sixth Schedule

5.Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  3, 4 and 5 only

(c)  1, 2 and 5 only

(d)  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

 

State Legislature

Q 1. Consider the following statements:   

(CSP Year 2018)

1.The speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.

2.Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 2. Consider the following statements:

(CSP Year 2016)

1.The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.

2.The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Governor

Q 1. Consider the following statements: 

(CSP Year 2018)

1.No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.

2.The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 2. Consider the following statements:   

(CSP Year 2016)

1.The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.

2.The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 3. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? 

(CSP Year 2014)

1.Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule.

2.Appointing the Ministers.

3.Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India.

4.Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 and 2

(b)  1 and 3

(c)  2, 3 and 4

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 4. Which one of the following statements is correct?     

(CSP Year 2013)

(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time.

(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.

(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post.

(d)  In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.

 

Fundamental Rights

Q 1. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty? 

(CSP Year 2018)

(a)  If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

(b)  If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

(c)  If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.

(d)  If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

 

Q 2. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?   

(CSP Year 2018)

1. Limitation of powers

2. Equality before law

3. People’s responsibility to the Government

4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 and 3 only

(b)  2 and 4 only

(c)  1, 2 and 4 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 3. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

(CSP Year 2018)

(a)   Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution

(b)   Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV

(c)   Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

(d)   Article 21 and the provisions under the 44th amendment to the Constitution

 

Q 4. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a:

(CSP Year 2017)

(a)  Fundamental Right

(b)  Natural Right

(c)  Constitutional Right

(d)  Legal Right

 

Q 5. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?   

(CSP Year 2017)

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor

2. Abolition of Untouchability

3. Protection of the interests of minorities

4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1, 2 and 4only

(b)  2, 3 and 4 only

(c)  1 and 4 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 6. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?  

(CSP Year 2017)

(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.

(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.

(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

 

Q 7. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

(CSP Year 2017)

(a) Privileges

(b) Restraints

(c) Competition

(d) Ideology

 

Q 8. Which one of the following statements is correct?      

(CSP Year 2017)

(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.

(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.

(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.

(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

 

Q 9. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?          

(CSP Year 2013)

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Fundamental Duties

(c) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

 

Q 10. With reference to consumer’s rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?      

(CSP Year 2012)

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.

2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.

3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 11. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?

(CSP Year 2011)

1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.

2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.

3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 12. Consider the following:     

(CSP Year 2011)

1.Right to education

2. Right to equal access to public service

3. Right to food

Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?

(a)  1 only

(b)  1 and 2 only

(c)  3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Parliamentary Committee

Q 1. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and report to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?     

(CSP Year 2018)

(a)  Committee on Government Assurances.

(b)  Committee on Subordinate Legislation.

(c)  Rules Committee.

(d)  Business Advisory Committee.

 

Q 2. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?  

(CSP Year 2014)

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts

(b) The Committee on Estimates

(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings

(d) The Committee on Petitions

 

 

Q 3.  Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts    

(CSP Year 2013)

1. Consists of not more than 25 members of the Lok Sabha.

2. Scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government.

3. Examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

President

Q 1. With reference to the Election of the President of India, consider the following statements: 

(CSP Year 2018)

1.  The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.

2.  The value of the Vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   1 only

(b)   2 only

(c)   Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 2. Consider the following statements:

(CSP Year 2014)

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.

2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

 

Q 3. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?  

(CSP Year 2012)

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission

2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee

3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General

4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 4 only

(c)  1, 3 and 4 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Election Commission

Q 1. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by        

(CSP Year 2017)

(a)  Anyone residing in India.

(b)  A resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

(c)  Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

(d)  Any citizen of India.

 

Q 2. Consider the following statements: 

(CSP Year 2017)

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.

3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  2only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  3 only

 

Supreme Court

Q 1. . In India, Judicial Review implies

(CSP Year 2017)

(a)  The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b) The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(c ) The power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.

(d)  The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or different cases.

 

Q 2. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India? 

(CSP Year 2015)

(a) The President of India

(b) The Prime Minister of India

(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat

(d) The Supreme Court of India

 

Q 3.The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its 

(CSP Year 2014)

(a) Advisory jurisdiction

(b) Appellate jurisdiction

(c) Original jurisdiction

(d) Writ jurisdiction

 

Q 4. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in  

(CSP Year 2014)

(a)  The President of India

(b)  The Parliament

(c)  The Chief Justice of India

(d)  The Law Commission

 

Q 5. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

(CSP Year 2012)

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.

2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State.

3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory.

4.A dispute between two or more States.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 and 2

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  1 and 4

(d)  3 and 4

 

Q 6. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

(CSP Year 2012)

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.

2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.

3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.

4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 and 3 only

(b)  3 and 4 only

(c)  4 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

 

Feature of Indian Constitution

Q 1. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:           

(CSP Year 2017)

(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.

(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.

(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.

(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

 

Q 2. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?  

(CSP Year 2017)

(a)  There is an independent judiciary in India.

(b)  Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.

(c)  The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

(d)  It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

 

Q 3. Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity 

(CSP Year 2017)

(a)  The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

(b)  The methods for strengthening executive leadership.

(c)  A superior individual with dynamism and vision.

(d)  A band of dedicated party workers.

 

 

Q 4. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that    

(CSP Year 2017)

(a)  The executive and legislature work independently.

(b)  It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

(c)  The executive remains responsible to the legislature.

(d)  The head of the government cannot be changed without election.

 

Fundamental Duties

Q 1. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?   

(CSP Year 2017)

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.

2. They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Preamble

Q 1. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

(CSP Year 2017)

(a)  Liberty of thought

(b)  Economic liberty

(c)  Liberty of expression

(d)  Liberty of belief

 

Q 2. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?   

(CSP Year 2017)

(a) The Preamble

(b) The Fundamental Rights

(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) The Fundamental Duties

 

Q 3. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the 

(CSP Year 2015)

(a) Preamble of the Constitution

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(c) Fundamental Rights

(d) Fundamental Duties

 

 

 

 

Directive Principle of State Policy

Q 1. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?      

(CSP Year 2017)

(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

(c) Right to work, education and public assistance

(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

 

Q 2. Consider the following statements:   

(CSP Year 2017)

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

1. Legislative function.

2. Executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 3. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its     

(CSP Year 2015)

(a) Preamble

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(c) Fundamental Rights

(d) Seventh Schedule

Q 4. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:   

(CSP Year 2015)

1.The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.

2.The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

 Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 5. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

(CSP Year 2014)

(a) Preamble to the Constitution

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(c) Fundamental Duties

(d) Ninth Schedule

 

Q 6. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:

(CSP Year 2012)  

1.Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code.

2.Organizing village Panchayats.

3.Promoting cottage industries in rural areas.

4.Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities.

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a)  1, 2 and 4 only 

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1, 3 and 4 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Panchayati Raj

Q 1. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in       

(CSP Year 2017)

(a) Federalism

(b) Democratic decentralization

(c) Administrative delegation

(d) Direct democracy

 

Q 2. Consider the following statements:

(CSP Year 2016)

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.

2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the reminder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 3.The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

(CSP Year 2015)

1. People’s participation in development

2. Political accountability

3. Democratic decentralization

4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1, 2 and 3

(b)  2 and 4

(c)  1 and 3

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 4. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?  

(CSP Year 2015)

1. People’s participation in development

2. Political accountability

3. Democratic decentralization

4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1, 2 and 3

(b)  2 and 4

(c)  1 and 3

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 5. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA)  Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective? 

(CSP Year 2013)

(a) To provide self-governance.

(b) To recognize traditional rights.

(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas.

(d) To free tribal people from exploitation.

 

Q 6. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas)  Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?         

( CSP Year 2012)

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.

2.Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.

3.Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  1 and 2 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Q 7. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment)  Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?       

(CSP Year 2011)

1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.

2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.

3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.

 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  1 and 2 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Subordinate Courts

Q 1. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?  

(CSP Year 2016)

1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil case and not criminal cases.

2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Center State Relations

Q 1. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the    

(CSP Year 2016)

 

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership

(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

 

Q 2. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

(CSP Year 2013)

(a)  With the consent of all the States.

(b)  With the consent of the majority of States.

(c)  With the consent of the States concerned.

(d)  Without the consent of any State.

 

Niti Aayog

Q 1. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the  

(CSP Year 2015)

(a) Human Rights Commission

(b) Finance Commission

(c) Law Commission

(d) Planning Commission

 

Prime Minister

Q 1. Consider the following statements:

(CSP Year 2015)

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.

2. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 2. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment      

(CSP Year 2012)

(a)  Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months.

(b)  Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months.

(c)  Must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament.

(d)  Must be a member of the Lok Sabha.

 

National Development Council

Q 1. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?    

(CSP Year 2014)

1. The Finance Commission

2. The National Development Council

3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development

4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development

5. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code give below:

(a)  1, 2 and 5

(b)  1, 3 and 4

(c)  2 and 5

(d)  1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

Q 2. Consider the following statements:   

(CSP Year 2013)

1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.

2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.

3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 3. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?       

(CSP Year 2013)

1. The Prime Minister

2. The Chairman, Finance Commission

3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet

4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b)  1, 3 and 4 only

(c)  2 and 4 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 4. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?  

(CSP Year 2013)

1. National Development Council

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Councils

 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)   1 and 2 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Features of Constitution

Q 1. Consider the following statements:  

(CSP Year 2014)

A Constitutional Government is one which

1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State authority.

2. Places effective restrictions on the authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Council Ministers

Q1. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?        

(CSP Year 2013)

1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.

2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.

3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  3 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Q 2. Consider the following statements:   

(CSP Year 2013)

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.

2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.

3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Constitutional Amendment

Q 1. Consider the following statements: 

(CSP Year 2013)

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.

2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Attorney General of India

Q 1. Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can    

(CSP Year 2013)

1. Take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha.

2. Be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha.

3. Speak in the Lok Sabha.

4. Vote in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b)  2 and 4

(c)  1, 2 and 3

(d)  1 and 3 only

 

Feature of the Constitution

Q 1. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because of the        

(CSP Year 2015)

(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people.

(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution.

(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved.

(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha.

 

Q 2. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in   

(CSP Year 2013)

(a) The Preamble and the Fundamental Rights.

(b) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy.

(c) The Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy.

(d) None of the above.

 

National Legal Service Authority

Q 1. With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:

(CSP Year 2013)

1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.

2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Scheduled and Tribal Area

Q 1. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights)  Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?        

(CSP Year 2013)

(a) State Forest Department

(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner

(c) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/ Mandal Revenue Officer

(d) Gram Sabha

 

Tribunals

Q 1. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?     

(CSP Year 2012)

1.Right to healthy environment construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21.

2.Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1) .

3.Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243-A.

 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 and 3 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

Comptroller and Auditor General

Q 1. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) ?       

(CSP Year 2012)

1.CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.

2.CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.

3.Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.

4.While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1, 3 and 4 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

Fundamental Duties

Q 1. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?          

(CSP Year 2012)

1.To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

2.To protect the weaker sections from social injustice.

3.To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry.

4.To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  1, 3 and 4 only

(d)  1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 2. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?

(CSP Year 2011)

(a) To vote in public elections.

(b) To develop the scientific temper.

(c) To safeguard public property.

(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals.

 

Delimitation Commission

Q 1. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:    

(CSP Year 2012)

1.The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.

2.When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot affect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

Finance Commission

Q 1. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?    

(CSP Year 2011)

(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development.

(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings.

(c) It ensures transparency in financial administration.

(d) None of the statements (a) , (b)  and (c)  given above is correct in this context.

 

Municipality

Q 1. Consider the following statements: In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee 

(CSP Year 2011)

1. Is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.

2. Prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.

3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  1 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

   

Last 8 Year Mains Question asked from Polity Subject (Year Wise)

2018

Total Questions asked 11/20: 5 Qs of 15 Marks, 6 Qs. of 10 Marks.

Total Marks allotted to Polity is 135 Marks / 250 Total Marks.

Q. 1 

In the light of recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India?    

(150 WORDS) (MARKS 10)

Q.2

Whether National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) can enforce the implementation of constitutional reservation for the Scheduled Castes in the religious minority institutions? Examine.      

                                                        (150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.3

Under what circumstances the Financial Emergency can be proclaimed by the President of India? What consequences follow when such a declaration remains in force?

                                                           (150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.4

Why do you think the committees are considered to be useful for parliamentary work? Discuss, in this context, the role of the Estimates Committee.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.5

“The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) has a very vital role to play.” Explain how this is reflected in the method and terms of his appointment as well as the range of powers he can exercise.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.6

E-governance in not only about utilization of the power of new technology, but also much about critical importance of the ‘use value’ of information. Explain. 

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.7

Whether the Supreme Court Judgement (July 2018) can settle the political tussle between the Lt. Governor and elected government of Delhi? Examine.   

(250 WORDS) (MARKS 15)

Q.8

How far do you agree with the view that tribunals curtail the jurisdiction of ordinary courts? In view of the above, discuss the constitutional validity and competency of the tribunals in India.

(250 WORDS) (MARKS 15)

Q.9

How is the Finance Commission of India constituted? What do you know about the terms of reference of the recently constituted Finance Commission? Discuss. 

 (250 WORDS) (MARKS 15)

 

Q.10

Assess the importance of Panchayat system in India as a part of local government. Apart from government grants, what sources the Panchayats can look out for financing developmental projects

(250 WORDS) (MARKS 15)

Q.11

Multiplicity of various commissions for the vulnerable sections or the society leads to problems or overlapping jurisdiction and duplication of functions. Is it better to merge all commissions into an umbrella Human Rights Commission? Argue your case. 

(250 WORDS) (MARKS 15)

2017

Total Questions asked  9 /20: 3 Qs. of 15 Marks, 6 Qs. of 10 Marks.

Total Marks allotted to Polity is 105 Marks / 250 Total Marks.

Q.1

“The local self-government system in India has not proved to be an effective instrument of governance”. Critically examine the statement and give your views to improve the situation. 

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.2

Critically examine the Supreme Court’s judgement on ‘National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, 2014’ with reference to the appointment of judges of higher judiciary in India. 

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.3

 ‘Simultaneous election to the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies will limit the amount of time and money spent in electioneering but it will reduce the government’s accountability to the people’ Discuss. 

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.4

How do pressure groups influence Indian political process? Do you agree with this view that informal pressure groups have emerged as powerful as formal pressure groups in recent years?

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.5

Discuss the role of Public Accounts Committee in establishing accountability of the government to the people. 

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.6

Hunger and Poverty are the biggest challenges for good governance in India still today. Evaluate how far successive governments have progressed in dealing with these humongous problems. Suggest measures for improvement. 

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.7

Examine the scope of Fundamental Rights in the light of the latest judgement of the Supreme Court on Right to Privacy.

(250 WORDS) (MARKS 15)

Q.8

The Indian Constitution has provisions for holding a joint session of the two houses of the Parliament. Enumerate the occasions when this would normally happen and also the occasions when it cannot, with reasons thereof.

(250 WORDS) (MARKS 15)

Q.9

To enhance the quality of democracy in India the Election Commission of India has proposed electoral reforms in 2016. What are the suggested reforms and how far are they significant to make democracy successful?

(250 WORDS) (MARKS 15)

2016

Total Questions  asked 10/20: 10 Qs. of 12.5 Marks.

Total Marks allotted to Polity is 125 Marks / 250 Total Marks.

Q.1

 “The Indian party system is passing through a phase of transaction which looks to be full of contradictions and paradoxes.” Discuss.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.2

Exercise of CAG’s powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and the States is derived from Article 149 of the Indian Constitution. Discuss whether audit of the Governments policy implementation could amount to overstepping its own (CAG) jurisdiction.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.3

Discuss each adjective attached to the word ‘Republic’ in the Preamble’. Are they defendable in the present circumstances?

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.4

What was held in the Coelho case? In this context, can you say that judicial review is of key important amongst the basic features of the Constitution?

( 200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.5

Did the Government of India Act, 1935 lay down a federal constitution? Discuss.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.6

What is a quasi-judicial body? Explain with the help of concrete examples.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.7

Did the Government of India Act, 1935 lay down a federal constitution? Discuss

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.8

What is a quasi-judicial body? Explain with the help of concrete examples.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.9

Discuss the essentials of the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act and anomalies, if any that have led to recent reported conflicts between the elected representatives and the institution of the Lieutenant Governor in the administration of Delhi. Do you think that this will give rise to a new trend in the functioning of the Indian federal politics?

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

 

Q.10

To what extent is Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, bearing marginal note “Temporary provision with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir”, temporary? Discuss the future prospects of this provision in the context of Indian polity.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

2015

Total Questions asked  8/20:  8 Qs. of 12.5 Marks.

Total Marks allotted to Polity is 100 Marks / 250 Total Marks.

Q.1

Discuss the possible factors that inhibit India from enacting for its citizens a uniform civil code as provided for in the Directive Principles of State Policy.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.2

The concept of cooperative federalism has been increasingly emphasized in recent years. Highlight the drawbacks in the existing structure and the extent to which cooperative federalism would answer the shortcomings.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.3

In absence of a well-educated and organized local level government system, ‘Panchayats’ and ‘Samitis’ have remained mainly political institutions and not effective instruments of governance. Critically discuss.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.4

Khap Panchayats have been in the news for functioning as extra-constitutional authorities, often delivering pronouncements amounting to human rights violations. Discuss critically the actions taken by the legislative, executive and the judiciary to set the things right in this regard.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.5

Resorting to ordinance has always raised concern on violation of the spirit of separation of powers doctrine. While noting the rationales justifying the power to promulgate ordinances, analyze whether the decisions of the Supreme Court on the issue have further facilitated resorting to this power. Should the power to promulgate ordinances be repealed?

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.6

What are the major changes brought in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 through the recent Ordinance promulgated by the President? How far will it improve India’s dispute resolution mechanism? Discuss.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

 

Q.7

Does the right to clean environment entail legal regulations on burning crackers during Diwali? Discuss in the light of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution and Judgment(s) of the Apex Court in this regard.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.8

“For achieving the desired objectives, it is necessary to ensure that the regulatory institutions remain independent and autonomous”. Discuss in the light of experience in the recent past.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

2014

Total Questions asked  7/20: 7 Qs. of 12.5 Marks.

Total Marks allotted to Polity is 87.5 Marks / 250 Total Marks.

Q.1

Starting from inventing the “basic structure doctrine”, the judiciary has played a highly proactive role in ensuring that India develops into a thriving democracy. In light of the statement, evaluate the role played by judicial activism in achieving the ideals of democracy.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.2

Though the federal principle is dominant in our Constitution and that principle is one of its basic features, but it is equally true that federalism under the Indian Constitution leans in favor of a strong Centre, a feature that militates against the concept of strong federalism. Discuss.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.3

The “Powers, Privileges and Immunities of Parliament and its Members” as envisaged in Article 105 of the Constitution leave room for a large number of uncodified and un-enumerated privileges to continue. Assess the reasons for the absence of legal codification of the “parliamentary privileges.” How can this problem be addressed?

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.4

What do you understand by the concept “freedom of speech and expression”? Does it cover hate speech also? Why do the films in India stand on a slightly different plane from other forms of expression? Discuss.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.5

Instances of President’s delay in commuting death sentences have come under public debate as denial of justice. Should there be a time limit specified for the President to accept/reject such petitions? Analyze.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.6

The size of the cabinet should be as big as governmental work justifies and as big as the Prime Minister can manage as a team. How far the efficacy of a government then is inversely related to the size of the cabinet? Discuss.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

Q.7

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) in India can be most effective when its tasks are adequately supported by other mechanisms that ensure the accountability of a government. In light of the above observation, assess the role of NHRC as an effective complement to the judiciary and other institutions in promoting and protecting human rights standards.

(200 WORDS) (MARKS 12.5)

2013

Total Questions asked  9/25: 9 Qs. of 10 Marks.

Total Marks allotted to Polity is 90 Marks / 250 Total Marks.

 

Q.1

The role of individual MPs (Members of Parliament) has diminished over the years and as a result healthy constructive debates on policy issues are not usually witnessed. How far can this be attributed to the anti-defection law which was legislated, but with a different intention?

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.2

Discuss Section 66A of IT Act, with reference to its alleged violation of Article 19 of the Constitution.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.3

Recent directives from Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas are perceived by the ‘Nagas’ as a threat to override the exceptional status enjoyed by the State. Discuss in light of Article 371-A of the Indian Constitution.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

 

Q.4

“The Supreme Court of India keeps a check on arbitrary power of the Parliament in amending the Constitution.” Discuss critically.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.5

Many State Governments further bifurcate geographical administrative areas like Districts and Talukas for better governance. In light of the above, can it also be justified that a greater number of smaller States would bring in effective governance at State level? Discuss.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.6

Constitutional mechanisms to resolve the inter-state water disputes have failed to address and solve the problems. Is the failure due to structural or process inadequacy or both? Discuss.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.7

Discuss the recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission which have been a departure from the previous Commissions for strengthening the local government finances.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.8

The product diversification of financial institutions and insurance companies, resulting in overlapping of products and services strengthens the case for the merger of the two regulatory agencies, namely SEBI and IRDA. Justify.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Q.9

Pressure group politics is sometimes seen as the informal face of politics. With regard to the above, assess the structure and functioning of pressure groups in India.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)

Last 8 Year Mains Question asked from Polity Subject (Topic Wise)

                                      Previous Year Mains Question Asked from Polity Subject (Topic wise - 8 Year)

Election Related

Q. 1

In the light of recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India?    

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10) CSM Year 2018

Q.2

‘Simultaneous election to the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies will limit the amount of time and money spent in electioneering but it will reduce the government’s accountability to the people’ Discuss.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10) CSM Year 2017

Q.3

To enhance the quality of democracy in India the Election Commission of India has proposed electoral reforms in 2016. What are the suggested reforms and how far are they significant to make democracy successful?

(250 WORDS, MARKS 15) CSM Year 2017

Q.4

“The Indian party system is passing through a phase of transaction which looks to be full of contradictions and paradoxes.” Discuss.

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2016

Schedule caste and schedule tribe

Q.1

Whether National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) can enforce the implementation of constitutional reservation for the Scheduled Castes in the religious minority institutions? Examine

(150WORDS, MARKS 10) CSM Year 2018

Emergency

Q.1

Under what circumstances can the Financial Emergency are proclaimed by the President of India? What consequences follow when such a declaration remains in force?

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)  CSM Year 2018

Parliamentary Committee

Q.1

Why do you think the committees are considered to be useful for parliamentary work? Discuss, in this context, the role of the Estimates Committee.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)  CSM Year 2018

Q.2

Discuss the role of Public Accounts Committee in establishing accountability of the government to the people.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10) CSM Year 2017

CAGI

Q.1

“The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) has a very vital role to play.” Explain how this is reflected in the method and terms of his appointment as well as the range of powers he can exercise.

(150WORDS, MARKS 10) CSM Year 2018

 

Q.2

Exercise of CAG’s powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and the States is derived from Article 149 of the Indian Constitution. Discuss whether audit of the Governments policy implementation could amount to overstepping its own (CAG) jurisdiction.

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5)  CSM Year 2016

Governance

Q.1

“Policy contradictions among various competing sectors and stakeholders have resulted in inadequate ‘protection and prevention of degradation to environment.” Comment with relevant illustrations.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)  CSM Year 2018

Q.2

E-governance in not only about utilization of the power of new technology, but also much about critical importance of the ‘use value’ of information. Explain.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)  CSM Year 2018

Q.3

The Citizen’s Charter is an ideal instrument of organisational transparency and accountability, but it has its own limitations. Identify the limitations and suggest measures for greater effectiveness of the Citizen’s Charters.

(250 WORDS, MARKS 15) CSM Year 2018

Q.4

How do pressure groups influence Indian political process? Do you agree with this view that informal pressure groups have emerged as powerful as formal pressure groups in recent years?

(150 words, MARKS 10) CSM Year 2017

Q.5

Hunger and Poverty are the biggest challenges for good governance in India still today. Evaluate how far successive governments have progressed in dealing with these humongous problems. Suggest measures for improvement.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10) CSM Year 2017

Q.6

‘The emergence of Self-Help Groups (SHGs) in contemporary times points to the slow but steady withdrawal of the state from developmental activities’. Examine the role of the SHGs in developmental activities and the measures taken by the Government of India to promote the SHGs.

(250 WORDS, MARKS 15) CSM Year 2017

Q.7

Pressure group politics is sometimes seen as the informal face of politics. With regard to the above, assess the structure and functioning of pressure groups in India.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)  CSM Year 2013

Q.8

Many State Governments further bifurcate geographical administrative areas like Districts and Talukas for better governance. In light of the above, can it also be justified that a greater number of smaller States would bring in effective governance at State level? Discuss.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)  CSM Year 2013

Supreme Court

Q.1

Whether the Supreme Court Judgement (July 2018) can settle the political tussle between the Lt. Governor and elected government of Delhi? Examine.

(250 WORDS, MARKS 15) CSM Year 2018

Q.2

Critically examine the Supreme Court’s judgement on ‘National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, 2014’ with reference to the appointment of judges of higher judiciary in India.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)  CSM Year 2017

Q.3

The Supreme Court of India keeps a check on arbitrary power of the Parliament in amending the Constitution.” Discuss critically.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10)  CSM Year 2013

Tribunals

Q.1

How far do you agree with the view that tribunals curtail the jurisdiction of ordinary courts? In view of the above, discuss the constitutional validity and competency of the tribunals in India.

(250 WORDS, MARKS 15)  CSM Year 2018

Q.2

What is a quasi-judicial body? Explain with the help of concrete examples.

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2016

Finance Commission

Q.1

How is the Finance Commission of India constituted? What do you know about the terms of reference of the recently constituted Finance Commission? Discuss.

(250 WORDS, MARKS 15)  CSM Year 2018

Q.2

Discuss the recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission which have been a departure from the previous Commissions for strengthening the local government finances.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10) CSM Year 2013

Panchayati Raj

Q.1

“The local self-government system in India has not proved to be an effective instrument of governance”. Critically examine the statement and give your views to improve the situation.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10) CSM Year 2017

Q.2

In absence of a well-educated and organized local level government system, ‘Panchayats’ and ‘Samitis’ have remained mainly political institutions and not effective instruments of governance. Critically discuss.

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5)  CSM Year 2015

Q.3

Khap Panchayats have been in the news for functioning as extra-constitutional authorities, often delivering pronouncements amounting to human rights violations. Discuss critically the actions taken by the legislative, executive and the judiciary to set the things right in this regard.

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2015

Fundamental Right

Q.1

Examine the scope of Fundamental Rights in the light of the latest judgement of the Supreme Court on Right to Privacy.

(250 WORDS,MARKS 15) CSM Year 2017

Q.2

Does the right to clean environment entail legal regulations on burning crackers during Diwali? Discuss in the light of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution and Judgment(s) of the Apex Court in this regard.

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2015

Q.3

What do you understand by the concept “freedom of speech and expression”? Does it cover hate speech also? Why do the films in India stand on a slightly different plane from other forms of expression? Discuss.

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2014

Q.4

Discuss Section 66A of IT Act, with reference to its alleged violation of Article 19 of the Constitution.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10) CSM Year 2013

Parliament

Q.1

The Indian Constitution has provisions for holding a joint session of the two houses of the Parliament. Enumerate the occasions when this would normally happen and also the occasions when it cannot, with reasons thereof.

(250 WORDS, MARKS 15) CSM Year 2017

Q.2

The “Powers, Privileges and Immunities of Parliament and its Members” as envisaged in Article 105 of the Constitution leave room for a large number of uncodified and un-enumerated privileges to continue. Assess the reasons for the absence of legal codification of the “parliamentary privileges.” How can this problem be addressed?

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2014

Q.3

The role of individual MPs (Members of Parliament) has diminished over the years and as a result healthy constructive debates on policy issues are not usually witnessed. How far can this be attributed to the anti-defection law which was legislated, but with a different intention?

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10) CSM Year 2013

Preamble

Q.1

Discuss each adjective attached to the word ‘Republic’ in the Preamble’. Are they defendable in the present circumstances?

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2016

Basic Feature

Q.1

What was held in the Coelho case? In this context, can you say that judicial review is of key important amongst the basic features of the Constitution?

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5)  CSM Year 2016

Q.2

Starting from inventing the “basic structure doctrine”, the judiciary has played a highly proactive role in ensuring that India develops into a thriving democracy. In light of the statement, evaluate the role played by judicial activism in achieving the ideals of democracy.

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2014

Political development in India

Q.1

Did the Government of India Act, 1935 lay down a federal constitution? Discuss.

 

Directive Principle of State Policy

Q.1

Discuss the possible factors that inhibit India from enacting for its citizens a uniform civil code as provided for in the Directive Principles of State Policy.

 (200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2015

Centre State Relation

Q.1

The concept of cooperative federalism has been increasingly emphasized in recent years. Highlight the drawbacks in the existing structure and the extent to which cooperative federalism would answer the shortcomings.

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2015

Q.2

Constitutional mechanisms to resolve the inter-state water disputes have failed to address and solve the problems. Is the failure due to structural or process inadequacy or both? Discuss.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10) CSM Year 2013

President

Q.1

Resorting to ordinance has always raised concern on violation of the spirit of separation of powers doctrine. While noting the rationales justifying the power to promulgate ordinances, analyze whether the decisions of the Supreme Court on the issue have further facilitated resorting to this power. Should the power to promulgate ordinances be repealed?

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2015

Q.2

What are the major changes brought in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 through the recent Ordinance promulgated by the President? How far will it improve India’s dispute resolution mechanism? Discuss.

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2015

Q.3

Instances of President’s delay in commuting death sentences have come under public debate as denial of justice. Should there be a time limit specified for the President to accept/reject such petitions? Analyze.

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2014

Council of Minister

Q.1

The size of the cabinet should be as big as governmental work justifies and as big as the Prime Minister can manage as a team. How far the efficacy of a government then is inversely related to the size of the cabinet? Discuss.

(200 WORDS,MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2014

Constitutional and Statutory Bodies

Q.1

“For achieving the desired objectives, it is necessary to ensure that the regulatory institutions remain independent and autonomous”. Discuss in the light of experience in the recent past.

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2015

Q.2

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) in India can be most effective when its tasks are adequately supported by other mechanisms that ensure the accountability of a government. In light of the above observation, assess the role of NHRC as an effective complement to the judiciary and other institutions in promoting and protecting human rights standards.

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2014

Q.3

The product diversification of financial institutions and insurance companies, resulting in overlapping of products and services strengthens the case for the merger of the two regulatory agencies, namely SEBI and IRDA. Justify.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10) CSM Year 2013

Special provision of some states

Q.1

Recent directives from Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas are perceived by the ‘Nagas’ as a threat to override the exceptional status enjoyed by the State. Discuss in light of Article 371-A of the Indian Constitution.

(150 WORDS, MARKS 10) CSM Year 2013

Feature of constitution

Q.1

Though the federal principle is dominant in our Constitution and that principle is one of its basic features, but it is equally true that federalism under the Indian Constitution leans in favor of a strong Centre, a feature that militates against the concept of strong federalism. Discuss.

(200 WORDS, MARKS 12.5) CSM Year 2014

 

Sample Notes : Exams Easy

Exams Easy Polity Theory Sample

Historical Background, Political and Constitutional Development of India:

  • The political and constitutional development, what we see today has been developing in our past history. If we go back in the timeline then we can bifurcate the time as “Before British came to India” and “When British ruled India.”

  • Before British came to India, we have seen in history that the dominant empires in India were Mughals in Central India, Marathas in western India, Nizams in Hyderabad, Hyder Ali in Mysore etc. These Empires had their own diverse politico-administrative systems.

  • In 1600 A.D., British came to India as traders in the form of East India Company. But after the "Battle of Plassey (23 June 1757)", the company obtained the Diwani right (i.e. the right over revenue and civil Justice) of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. Consequently, the Company established "The dual system" of government in India. Bengal at that time consisted of today’s West Bengal, Bangladesh and Assam. So, Company obtained Diwani rights over a huge part of the country.

  • Dual system of Government: In this system, Diwani Rights was taken care by the East India Company whereas the Nizamat i.e. General Administration was taken care by the then Nawab. This system was introduced by Robert Clive. So, in this way, British took control of financial power without taking responsibility of administration.

  • Later the dual system of government was abolished by the Governor Warren Hasting and the company became the territorial power in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. Company then established their own Politico-administrative system which was further extended to other territories in India through the policy of Subsidiary Alliance and Ring Fence (Read History Book for details).

  • In response to these policies, the major Revolt of 1857 took place. The end result of which was, the British directly assumed the responsibility to govern India and they started replicating their political system in India. This was continued till India was granted independence on August 15, 1947. That is why our constitution has many similarities with the British constitution, though our constitution has also been sourced from many other countries’.

  • So, we can divide British rule in India in 02 parts:

i)  Period from 1765 to 1857 in which British ruled indirectly through East India Company, also known as Company Rule.

ii) Period from 1858-1947 in which British assumed direct control, also known as Crown Rule.

  • To regulate the administration of the company, the British Parliament passed various acts under Company, some of which are chronologically listed as follows:

    • Regulating act 1773

    • Pitts India Act 1784

    • Charter act 1833

    • Charter act 1853

  • After 1857 revolt, the British Govt. established direct rule, which is also known as "Crown Rule". So, from 1858 to 1947 "Crown Rule" was continued and to establish the politico-administrative system for governing India, they passed various acts which are chronologically listed below:

  • Government of India Act 1858

  • Indian Council act 1861

  • Indian Council act 1892

  • Indian Council act 1909 also known as Morley-Minto reform

  • Government of India Act 1919   also known as Montagu-Chelmsford reform

  • Government of India Act 1935  

  • Indian Independence Act of 1947

  • Let us review these two periods (Company Rule and Crown Rule) in subsequent subtopics.

 

The Company Rule (1773–1858)

  • During this period, Company established its rule in India and the British Parliament passed various acts to control the affairs of the Company. The first in this series was the Regulating Act 1773.

1. Regulating Act 1773:

Introduction and Background:

  • Since East India company was a business entity that means it was not a political wing of the British Parliament. But under the Regulating Act 1773, the British Parliament first time recognised the political and administrative function of the company.

  • To understand the features of this act, we need to first understand the organisation of the East India company.

  • As we see in the present systems of companies, the highest decision-making body of a company is the Board of Directors headed by a chairman. Below it, there is a hierarchy of services, which are taken up by the company’s executives. Similarly, in East India Company there was a Court of Directors. Under them, there was a hierarchy of the posts which were, Governors, Deputy Governors, Traders, Factors and Writers in that order.

  • In any political system, there are mainly 3 organs, which are

    • Legislative

    • Executive

    • Judiciary

  • Legislative organ is the law-making body of the country e.g. The Parliament of India.

  • Executive organ makes policy and implements it. It is the main government, which has the full control over finances and budgets. e.g. Prime Minister & Council of Ministers etc.

  • Judiciary ensures that the law is not violated. It safeguards the law made by the Legislative organ. e.g. Supreme Court, High Court etc.

Features of Regulating Act 1773 (First Step towards Centralisation of Power):

  • The company’s administration was running under the control of Governors in three different provinces, which were Bengal, Madras and Bombay. All the three Governors of these provinces had been working independently, but the Regulating Act re-designated Governor of Bengal as Governor General of Bengal and made Governors of Bombay and Madras subordinate to him.

  • This act also created an Executive Council (of four members) to assist Governor General of Bengal. By doing this British tend to establish centralised administration in India. The first Governor General of Bengal was Lord Warren Hastings.

  • The Court of Directors used to report on the company’s revenue, civil and military affairs to the British government.

  • Regulating Act also established the Supreme Court at Calcutta with one chief justice and three other judges to deal with the cases of companies’ affair. It prohibited the company’s servants from engaging in bribes or private trade. It did not adjudicate the Indian’s cases.

  • The first chief justice of the Supreme Court was Eliza Imphey.

 

2. Pitt's India Act 1784 also known as Act of Settlement

  • Under this act, the British Government distinguished the Political and the Commercial function of East India Company.

  • A new body, Board of Control was created to manage the political affairs of the company in India. Board of Control supervised and directed the Civil and Military operations, whereas commercial affairs were managed by the earlier Court of Directors.  Thus, the Double Government System was established.

 

3. Charter Act 1833: (Final Step Towards Centralisation of Power)

  • This act re-designated the office of Governor General of Bengal as Governor General of India.

  • William Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India.

Functions of Governor-General of India:

  • This office was given the exclusive Legislative Power (Law making power) for the entire India. That means it deprived the Governor of Madras and Bombay of their legislative powers.

  • Governor-General of India was given the Civil and military powers.

  • The Governor-General of India continued to enjoy legislative as well as executive powers.

  • Thus, this Act provided the Centralisation of British India by concentrating the powers of legislation and administration to the office of Governor-General of India.

  • This act ended the commercial function of the East India Company and made it a purely administrative body.

  • From now, we will also focus on gradual association of Indians first into the Civil Services and then in Legislative Council and finally into the Executive Council.

 

4. Charter Act 1853: (Beginning of Parliamentary System)

  • This act took away the legislative function from the Governor General’s Executive Council by introducing a new body consisting of Six members. This new body came to be known as Indian Legislative Council. It acted as Mini Parliament of India.

  • In order to have local representation while making law out of these six new legislative councillors, four members were to be appointed by the local government of Madras, Bombay, Bengal and Agra.

  • It allowed Indians to take part in Indian Civil Services by introducing an open system of competition for the recruitment of Civil Servant. After this act, Macaulay committee was set up on Indian Civil Services.

  • After the revolt of 1857, the company rule was abolished and British government took over the entire administration of British India through British crown (Viceroy).

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